Sample Questions and Answers
1. Which Salesforce feature allows declarative automation by updating related records when a record changes?
A) Workflow Rule
B) Process Builder
C) Apex Trigger
D) Data Loader
Answer: B) Process Builder
Explanation: Process Builder is a declarative automation tool that can update related records, create records, send emails, and more, all based on record changes without code.
2. Which report format should you use to display data grouped by rows and columns?
A) Tabular
B) Summary
C) Matrix
D) Joined
Answer: C) Matrix
Explanation: Matrix reports group data by both rows and columns, allowing for more complex data comparisons.
3. Which data type is best for storing multiple lines of text up to 32,768 characters?
A) Text
B) Text Area (Long)
C) Text Area (Rich)
D) Text Area (Encrypted)
Answer: B) Text Area (Long)
Explanation: The “Text Area (Long)” data type supports up to 32,768 characters for multiple lines of plain text.
4. What is the maximum number of lookup relationships allowed per object?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 25
D) 40
Answer: C) 25
Explanation: Salesforce allows up to 25 lookup relationships per object.
5. When creating a custom Lightning component for a record page, which interface must the component implement to access the record ID?
A) force:appHostable
B) force:hasRecordId
C) lightning:recordViewForm
D) force:recordData
Answer: B) force:hasRecordId
Explanation: The force:hasRecordId interface allows a Lightning component to access the current record ID.
6. Which tool allows users to create and manage business processes without writing code?
A) Apex
B) Visualforce
C) Lightning Flow
D) SOQL
Answer: C) Lightning Flow
Explanation: Lightning Flow provides drag-and-drop tools like Flow Builder for automating business processes declaratively.
7. What is a key benefit of using Custom Metadata Types over Custom Settings?
A) Records can be accessed in Apex without SOQL
B) Metadata records can be deployed between orgs using packages
C) Records are private to each user
D) Custom Metadata Types have larger storage limits
Answer: B) Metadata records can be deployed between orgs using packages
Explanation: Custom Metadata Types allow records to be deployed and packaged, unlike Custom Settings.
8. Which of the following is NOT a valid component of a Salesforce app?
A) Tabs
B) Objects
C) Apex Classes
D) Profiles
Answer: D) Profiles
Explanation: Profiles are permissions sets, not components included inside an app.
9. Which feature lets you restrict access to fields in Salesforce?
A) Field-Level Security
B) Role Hierarchy
C) Sharing Rules
D) Profile Page Layout
Answer: A) Field-Level Security
Explanation: Field-Level Security controls user access to individual fields on objects.
10. Which automation tool is recommended when you need to automate a process that requires invoking Apex code?
A) Workflow Rule
B) Process Builder
C) Flow
D) Approval Process
Answer: C) Flow
Explanation: Flow supports calling Apex actions, making it the best choice for automation involving code invocation.
11. What is the purpose of a Junction Object?
A) To create a many-to-many relationship between two objects
B) To enable multiple owners for a record
C) To create a parent-child relationship
D) To store user permissions
Answer: A) To create a many-to-many relationship between two objects
Explanation: A junction object is a custom object with two master-detail relationships to create many-to-many relationships.
12. Which component allows embedding of Lightning components on record pages?
A) Visualforce Page
B) Lightning App Builder
C) Setup Menu
D) Schema Builder
Answer: B) Lightning App Builder
Explanation: Lightning App Builder enables admins to drag and drop Lightning components onto record pages.
13. What is a benefit of using Dynamic Forms in Salesforce?
A) Control field visibility based on record data
B) Automate data loading
C) Write Apex triggers more easily
D) Manage profiles and permissions
Answer: A) Control field visibility based on record data
Explanation: Dynamic Forms allow admins to configure fields and sections visibility dynamically on Lightning record pages.
14. Which object is always available in Salesforce and cannot be deleted or modified?
A) Custom Object
B) Standard Object
C) Custom Setting
D) Custom Metadata Type
Answer: B) Standard Object
Explanation: Standard Objects, such as Account and Contact, are pre-built Salesforce objects and cannot be deleted.
15. What happens when you enable “Grant Access Using Hierarchies” on a custom object?
A) Records inherit sharing access from parent records
B) Role hierarchy is applied to the object for sharing
C) Users can edit any record regardless of access
D) Users have no access to records
Answer: B) Role hierarchy is applied to the object for sharing
Explanation: Enabling “Grant Access Using Hierarchies” allows role hierarchy sharing to apply on the object.
16. Which type of relationship is best when child records should be automatically deleted when the parent record is deleted?
A) Lookup Relationship
B) Master-Detail Relationship
C) External Lookup
D) Hierarchical Relationship
Answer: B) Master-Detail Relationship
Explanation: In Master-Detail relationships, child records are automatically deleted when the parent is deleted.
17. What is the maximum number of fields allowed on a custom object?
A) 200
B) 500
C) 800
D) 1000
Answer: C) 800
Explanation: A custom object can have up to 800 custom fields.
18. Which Salesforce feature allows you to create reusable components that can be used across Lightning pages?
A) Lightning Web Components
B) Visualforce Pages
C) Process Builder
D) Apex Classes
Answer: A) Lightning Web Components
Explanation: Lightning Web Components (LWC) are reusable, customizable components for Lightning Experience.
19. What should a platform app builder use to enforce business rules at the database level without Apex code?
A) Validation Rules
B) Workflow Rules
C) Apex Triggers
D) Lightning Flow
Answer: A) Validation Rules
Explanation: Validation Rules enforce data integrity by preventing users from saving invalid data.
20. Which Salesforce automation tool is best for multi-step, complex processes with branching logic?
A) Workflow Rule
B) Process Builder
C) Flow Builder
D) Approval Process
Answer: C) Flow Builder
Explanation: Flow Builder supports multi-step logic, branching, user input, and complex automation.
21. What can a Profile control?
A) Object-level permissions
B) Field-level permissions
C) App access
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Profiles control access to apps, objects, fields, tabs, and system permissions.
22. Which license type is required to build and deploy apps in a Salesforce org?
A) Platform License
B) Chatter License
C) Customer Community License
D) Knowledge User License
Answer: A) Platform License
Explanation: Platform licenses provide access to build and use custom apps but with some feature limitations.
23. What does the Schema Builder allow you to do?
A) View and modify the object schema visually
B) Run Apex code
C) Create reports
D) Manage user permissions
Answer: A) View and modify the object schema visually
Explanation: Schema Builder is a drag-and-drop interface to view and edit objects, fields, and relationships.
24. Which permission is required to create custom objects?
A) Customize Application
B) Modify All Data
C) View Setup and Configuration
D) Manage Users
Answer: A) Customize Application
Explanation: The “Customize Application” permission enables users to create and customize objects and fields.
25. When creating a custom app, what must you specify?
A) App Name and Primary Tab
B) Profile and Role
C) Apex Classes
D) Workflow Rules
Answer: A) App Name and Primary Tab
Explanation: Creating a custom app requires specifying a name and primary navigation tab.
26. Which type of relationship supports roll-up summary fields?
A) Lookup Relationship
B) Master-Detail Relationship
C) External Lookup
D) Hierarchical Relationship
Answer: B) Master-Detail Relationship
Explanation: Roll-up summary fields are only supported on master-detail relationships.
27. What is the maximum number of apps you can have in a Salesforce org?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 200
D) 300
Answer: C) 200
Explanation: Salesforce allows up to 200 apps per org (both classic and Lightning apps).
28. Which automation can send an email alert based on a record change?
A) Validation Rule
B) Workflow Rule
C) Visual Workflow
D) Schema Builder
Answer: B) Workflow Rule
Explanation: Workflow Rules can trigger email alerts on record changes.
29. Which tool can be used to import records from a CSV file?
A) Data Loader
B) Schema Builder
C) Setup Menu
D) Lightning Flow
Answer: A) Data Loader
Explanation: Data Loader is used to import, export, and delete records in bulk.
30. Which license type is required for users to access Lightning Apps?
A) Salesforce License
B) Chatter Free
C) Customer Community License
D) Knowledge License
Answer: A) Salesforce License
Explanation: Salesforce licenses allow full access to Lightning Apps and standard CRM features.
31. What is a key advantage of using Lightning App Builder over Visualforce for building pages?
A) Requires coding knowledge
B) Drag-and-drop interface for declarative page creation
C) Only works for Classic interface
D) Cannot add standard components
Answer: B) Drag-and-drop interface for declarative page creation
Explanation: Lightning App Builder provides a no-code, drag-and-drop interface to create Lightning pages easily, unlike Visualforce which requires coding.
32. Which feature allows you to enforce data quality by requiring users to enter data that meets specific criteria?
A) Workflow Rules
B) Validation Rules
C) Approval Processes
D) Sharing Settings
Answer: B) Validation Rules
Explanation: Validation Rules prevent users from saving records that don’t meet specified criteria.
33. What does the “Enable Set Field-Level Security” checkbox do when creating a custom field?
A) Automatically sets field-level security for profiles
B) Allows users to edit the field only in reports
C) Removes the field from page layouts
D) Creates a validation rule for the field
Answer: A) Automatically sets field-level security for profiles
Explanation: This option lets you immediately configure which profiles can see or edit the field.
34. Which automation tool is best when you need to update related records based on record changes and require multiple criteria and actions?
A) Workflow Rule
B) Process Builder
C) Apex Trigger
D) Data Loader
Answer: B) Process Builder
Explanation: Process Builder allows multiple criteria and actions, including updating related records, all without code.
35. How does Salesforce handle record ownership in a master-detail relationship?
A) The child record can have a different owner than the parent
B) The child record automatically inherits the owner of the parent record
C) The owner field is disabled on the parent record
D) Ownership is not defined in master-detail relationships
Answer: B) The child record automatically inherits the owner of the parent record
Explanation: In master-detail relationships, the child record inherits the parent’s owner and sharing settings.
36. What is the maximum number of unique external IDs allowed per object?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
Answer: C) 5
Explanation: Salesforce allows up to 5 unique external ID fields per object.
37. Which feature in Salesforce allows creating custom picklist values that are global and reusable across multiple objects?
A) Global Value Sets
B) Dependent Picklists
C) Custom Settings
D) Record Types
Answer: A) Global Value Sets
Explanation: Global Value Sets allow reuse of picklist values across different objects and fields.
38. What is the primary use of a Salesforce Record Type?
A) To control page layouts and picklist values for different business processes
B) To define user permissions
C) To create custom objects
D) To create workflows
Answer: A) To control page layouts and picklist values for different business processes
Explanation: Record Types enable different business processes, layouts, and picklist values within the same object.
39. Which statement best describes a “Flow Interview”?
A) A specific run of a Flow instance for a user
B) A method of calling Apex in Flow
C) A report generated by Flow
D) A test environment for Flows
Answer: A) A specific run of a Flow instance for a user
Explanation: Each time a Flow runs, it creates an interview, tracking that execution.
40. What happens if you deactivate a Process Builder process that is currently active?
A) It will continue running for all new records
B) No new records will trigger the process, but existing records will complete it
C) All active processes will be deleted
D) It automatically converts to a Flow
Answer: B) No new records will trigger the process, but existing records will complete it
Explanation: Deactivating stops new triggers but doesn’t interrupt currently running processes.
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