Sample Questions Answers
Which Salesforce feature provides an immutable audit trail for compliance auditing?
A) Setup Audit Trail
B) Field History Tracking
C) Event Monitoring
D) Shield Platform Encryption
Answer: C
Explanation: Event Monitoring provides detailed, immutable logs of user and system activity.
What is the maximum number of Platform Events that can be published per hour in a production org?
A) 1 million
B) 100,000
C) 10,000
D) Unlimited
Answer: A
Explanation: Salesforce allows up to 1 million Platform Events published per hour, depending on edition.
How does Salesforce ensure data consistency in eventual consistency scenarios?
A) Real-time synchronous commits only
B) Using event-driven architecture with guaranteed delivery and replay capabilities
C) No guarantees
D) Batch synchronization only
Answer: B
Explanation: Event-driven models provide mechanisms to replay and ensure eventual consistency.
What are the key components of Salesforce’s Customer 360 Data Manager?
A) Only contact records
B) Data unification, identity resolution, and profile management across systems
C) Salesforce licensing tool
D) Email marketing platform
Answer: B
Explanation: Customer 360 unifies data to build a single customer profile.
Which Salesforce API is optimized for read-only access to very large data sets?
A) REST API
B) Bulk API
C) Salesforce Object Query Language (SOQL) via Tooling API
D) Salesforce Analytics API
Answer: B
Explanation: Bulk API is designed for large-scale data extraction and load.
When implementing encrypted data, what impact does Shield Platform Encryption have on reporting?
A) No impact
B) Some encrypted fields are not reportable or filterable
C) Reports run faster
D) Only affects mobile access
Answer: B
Explanation: Some encrypted fields have limitations on filtering and reporting.
What is the best practice for managing API call limits across multiple integrations?
A) Monitor API usage via Event Monitoring and optimize calls with Bulk API and caching
B) Disable APIs when not in use
C) Use SOAP API exclusively
D) Increase license counts
Answer: A
Explanation: Monitoring usage and optimizing calls prevents hitting limits.
How do you architect Salesforce data models to support GDPR right-to-be-forgotten requests?
A) Delete records immediately without backups
B) Use Data Mask and field-level encryption; implement soft deletes with audit trails
C) Ignore requests
D) Disable all data exports
Answer: B
Explanation: Data Masking and controlled deletions help comply while retaining audit capability.
Which Salesforce feature helps integrate Salesforce with legacy databases without data duplication?
A) Salesforce Connect with OData adapters
B) External Services
C) Salesforce-to-Salesforce
D) Data Loader
Answer: A
Explanation: Salesforce Connect lets you access external data in real time without duplication.
How does the Salesforce Event Bus handle message delivery?
A) Fire-and-forget with no retries
B) Guarantees delivery with retries and dead-letter queues for failed events
C) Requires manual intervention
D) Only supports scheduled events
Answer: B
Explanation: Event Bus ensures reliable message delivery with retry mechanisms.
Which architecture principle is most critical when designing scalable Salesforce data models?
A) Minimize number of objects regardless of complexity
B) Normalize data extensively to avoid duplication and improve integrity
C) Maximize use of formula fields regardless of performance
D) Use one object for all data
Answer: B
Explanation: Normalization reduces duplication and maintains data integrity.
What are Big Objects primarily used for in Salesforce architecture?
A) Storing temporary data only
B) Archiving and storing massive volumes of historical data with efficient query performance
C) Replacing standard objects
D) User interface enhancements
Answer: B
Explanation: Big Objects handle huge volumes of data for audit and history tracking.
How should you architect data sharing in a highly regulated environment?
A) Use Public Read/Write sharing
B) Apply the principle of least privilege with role hierarchies, sharing rules, and manual sharing
C) Disable all sharing rules
D) Allow all users full access
Answer: B
Explanation: Least privilege ensures only authorized access, meeting regulatory requirements.
What’s the best way to monitor data quality continuously in Salesforce?
A) Run reports quarterly
B) Use Validation Rules, Duplicate Management, and Data Quality dashboards with automated alerts
C) Manual data reviews only
D) Use external spreadsheets only
Answer: B
Explanation: Automated rules and dashboards provide proactive data quality monitoring.
What is a critical consideration when designing cross-org data sharing via Salesforce to Salesforce?
A) Data is replicated automatically with no control
B) Data sharing is explicit and controlled via connection requests and sharing rules
C) Only metadata is shared
D) No encryption is possible
Answer: B
Explanation: Sharing requires explicit connections and sharing rules.
What is the maximum retention period for debug logs in Salesforce?
A) 24 hours
B) 7 days
C) 30 days
D) Unlimited
Answer: B
Explanation: Debug logs are retained for up to 7 days.
How does Salesforce’s Shield Platform Encryption handle encryption key management?
A) Salesforce manages all keys by default with optional Bring Your Own Key (BYOK) for control
B) Keys must be managed by customers only
C) No key management is available
D) Keys are stored in clear text
Answer: A
Explanation: Shield allows customers to manage keys with BYOK or use Salesforce-managed keys.
What is the purpose of Salesforce External IDs in data architecture?
A) Encrypt record IDs
B) Identify records uniquely for upsert and integration without relying on Salesforce IDs
C) Used for UI customization
D) Manage user passwords
Answer: B
Explanation: External IDs help identify records uniquely during data upsert/integration.
When architecting data access for mobile users, what is critical?
A) Full data access without restrictions
B) Optimized data sync with offline support and secure access controls
C) Disable mobile access
D) Sync only metadata
Answer: B
Explanation: Mobile requires selective sync and security.
Which Salesforce feature helps automate data governance workflows?
A) Process Builder and Flow
B) Workflow Rules only
C) Data Loader
D) Classic Reports
Answer: A
Explanation: Process Builder and Flow automate data quality and governance processes.
What is the primary use of Salesforce Data Mask?
A) Encrypt data in transit
B) Anonymize sensitive data in sandboxes to protect privacy during testing
C) Backup data externally
D) Enhance UI performance
Answer: B
Explanation: Data Mask anonymizes sensitive data in non-production environments.
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