Sample Questions and Answers
What is a ‘risk event’ in Azure AD Identity Protection?
A) An event when a user’s device is updated
B) An incident indicating suspicious sign-in or account activity
C) A scheduled maintenance window
D) A compliance policy breach
Answer: B) An incident indicating suspicious sign-in or account activity
Explanation: Risk events can trigger conditional access policies or remediation workflows.
Which Microsoft product is designed to help with the discovery and classification of sensitive data?
A) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
B) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
C) Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
D) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
Answer: A) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
Explanation: It uses labels and classifiers to discover and protect sensitive data.
Which feature allows organizations to monitor risky behaviors and potential insider threats?
A) Azure Sentinel
B) Insider Risk Management
C) Microsoft Secure Score
D) Microsoft Defender for Identity
Answer: B) Insider Risk Management
Explanation: Insider Risk Management analyzes user activity to detect potential policy violations.
What is the purpose of ‘Just-In-Time’ (JIT) access in Privileged Identity Management?
A) To grant permanent admin rights to users
B) To provide time-limited privileged access only when needed
C) To automatically synchronize user passwords
D) To enforce data encryption policies
Answer: B) To provide time-limited privileged access only when needed
Explanation: JIT access reduces risk by limiting the time elevated privileges are active.
Which Microsoft service integrates with Microsoft Defender to provide endpoint detection and response (EDR)?
A) Azure AD Identity Protection
B) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
C) Microsoft Purview Data Loss Prevention
D) Microsoft Compliance Manager
Answer: B) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
Explanation: Defender for Endpoint offers EDR capabilities to detect and respond to advanced threats.
What role does Conditional Access play in securing Microsoft 365?
A) It controls access based on user conditions such as location, device, or risk level
B) It encrypts all files stored in the cloud
C) It manages firewall settings
D) It backs up user data automatically
Answer: A) It controls access based on user conditions such as location, device, or risk level
Explanation: Conditional Access helps enforce policies dynamically based on context.
What is the purpose of Microsoft Compliance Manager?
A) To provide risk-based conditional access
B) To assist in managing compliance activities and tracking regulatory requirements
C) To scan files for malware
D) To configure VPN connections
Answer: B) To assist in managing compliance activities and tracking regulatory requirements
Explanation: It offers templates, assessments, and actionable insights for compliance.
How does Microsoft Endpoint Manager enforce security on mobile devices?
A) By installing antivirus software
B) By applying policies such as device encryption, PIN enforcement, and app management
C) By blocking all external connections
D) By monitoring email traffic
Answer: B) By applying policies such as device encryption, PIN enforcement, and app management
Explanation: Endpoint Manager allows centralized control over device security.
What is the benefit of Azure AD B2B collaboration?
A) It allows organizations to share resources securely with external partners using their own credentials
B) It automatically backs up Azure resources
C) It encrypts all internal emails
D) It monitors insider threats
Answer: A) It allows organizations to share resources securely with external partners using their own credentials
Explanation: B2B collaboration supports secure cross-organization access.
What is the difference between sensitivity labels and retention labels in Microsoft Purview?
A) Sensitivity labels protect data; retention labels manage data lifecycle and deletion
B) Sensitivity labels manage retention; retention labels protect data
C) Both labels do the same thing
D) Retention labels encrypt data; sensitivity labels back up data
Answer: A) Sensitivity labels protect data; retention labels manage data lifecycle and deletion
Explanation: Sensitivity labels control access and protection, while retention labels enforce compliance through data retention policies.
Which Microsoft service provides a cloud-native SIEM solution?
A) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
B) Azure Sentinel
C) Azure AD Identity Protection
D) Microsoft Compliance Manager
Answer: B) Azure Sentinel
Explanation: Azure Sentinel collects security data across systems and provides threat detection and response.
What is Microsoft Secure Score?
A) A tool that measures an organization’s security posture and provides improvement recommendations
B) A password strength meter
C) A network traffic analyzer
D) An email spam filter
Answer: A) A tool that measures an organization’s security posture and provides improvement recommendations
Explanation: Secure Score helps prioritize security improvements.
What is the purpose of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
A) To detect and manage risks related to cloud applications and shadow IT
B) To scan local endpoints for malware
C) To manage device updates
D) To configure firewall rules
Answer: A) To detect and manage risks related to cloud applications and shadow IT
Explanation: Defender for Cloud Apps provides visibility and control over cloud usage.
What is the function of Microsoft Azure AD Conditional Access policies?
A) To automate user account creation
B) To enforce policies that allow or block access based on conditions like device state, location, or user risk
C) To backup Azure virtual machines
D) To encrypt emails
Answer: B) To enforce policies that allow or block access based on conditions like device state, location, or user risk
Explanation: Conditional Access provides contextual access control.
Which Microsoft tool is used for data classification and labeling?
A) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
B) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Microsoft Endpoint Manager
Answer: B) Microsoft Purview Information Protection
Explanation: It helps classify, label, and protect sensitive data.
What does Microsoft Defender for Identity monitor?
A) User and entity behavior on-premises to detect identity-related threats
B) Email attachments for viruses
C) Device health and updates
D) Cloud app configurations
Answer: A) User and entity behavior on-premises to detect identity-related threats
Explanation: It identifies suspicious activities such as lateral movement or compromised credentials.
Which compliance standard can Microsoft Compliance Manager help assess?
A) ISO 27001
B) GDPR
C) HIPAA
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Compliance Manager includes templates for many regulatory frameworks.
What is the advantage of enabling Microsoft Intune on devices?
A) Enforce security policies and manage apps on mobile devices and PCs remotely
B) Scan for email phishing
C) Encrypt all data automatically
D) Provide cloud-based SIEM
Answer: A) Enforce security policies and manage apps on mobile devices and PCs remotely
Explanation: Intune provides centralized device management.
Which Microsoft solution helps reduce risks associated with compromised credentials?
A) Azure AD Password Protection and MFA
B) Microsoft Defender Antivirus
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Microsoft Compliance Manager
Answer: A) Azure AD Password Protection and MFA
Explanation: These tools reduce the chances of credential theft and misuse.
What is the key benefit of ‘least privilege access’?
A) Users get full admin rights permanently
B) Users have only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their jobs
C) All users share the same permissions
D) Permissions are removed completely
Answer: B) Users have only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their jobs
Explanation: This reduces risk of accidental or malicious misuse of permissions.
How does Microsoft Purview Communication Compliance assist organizations?
A) Monitors communications for policy violations and risky behavior
B) Encrypts messages automatically
C) Manages device compliance
D) Scans for malware
Answer: A) Monitors communications for policy violations and risky behavior
Explanation: It helps organizations ensure compliance with internal and external policies.
What does Azure AD Identity Protection use to detect suspicious activities?
A) Manual reports
B) Machine learning and heuristic algorithms
C) Device hardware sensors
D) Email scanning
Answer: B) Machine learning and heuristic algorithms
Explanation: It analyzes sign-ins and user behavior to identify risks.
Which feature helps organizations manage and control external user access?
A) Azure AD B2B Collaboration
B) Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
C) Azure Sentinel
D) Microsoft Compliance Manager
Answer: A) Azure AD B2B Collaboration
Explanation: It enables secure collaboration with partners using their own credentials.
What is the focus of Microsoft Purview Data Lifecycle Management?
A) Protecting data from malware
B) Managing data retention and deletion policies to comply with regulations
C) Monitoring device health
D) Managing user identities
Answer: B) Managing data retention and deletion policies to comply with regulations
Explanation: Data lifecycle management automates compliance with data retention rules.
What is the primary function of Azure Sentinel?
A) To provide centralized monitoring, detection, and automated response to security threats
B) To backup files automatically
C) To synchronize user passwords
D) To scan email attachments
Answer: A) To provide centralized monitoring, detection, and automated response to security threats
Explanation: Sentinel collects and analyzes security data for incident response.
How can Microsoft Secure Score help improve security posture?
A) By showing detailed firewall configurations
B) By providing actionable recommendations based on current security configurations
C) By scanning devices for viruses
D) By encrypting user emails
Answer: B) By providing actionable recommendations based on current security configurations
Explanation: Secure Score suggests prioritized improvements.
What is the benefit of integrating Microsoft Defender for Endpoint with Azure Sentinel?
A) It provides centralized security monitoring and advanced threat detection across endpoints and cloud
B) It encrypts all data automatically
C) It manages user licenses
D) It controls device backups
Answer: A) It provides centralized security monitoring and advanced threat detection across endpoints and cloud
Explanation: Integration enables more comprehensive threat visibility and faster response.
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