Salesforce Data Cloud Consultant Certification

What is the primary purpose of identity resolution in Salesforce Data Cloud?

To identify duplicate customer records
B. To assign users unique usernames
C. To optimize dashboards
D. To segment contacts by engagement

Answer: A
Explanation: Identity resolution matches and merges disparate customer records to build a unified customer profile across different data sources.

What are the two types of data ingestion methods available in Data Cloud?

Synchronous and Asynchronous
B. Real-time and Batch
C. Linear and Parallel
D. Full and Incremental

Answer: B
Explanation: Salesforce Data Cloud supports both real-time ingestion for streaming data and batch ingestion for scheduled data uploads from sources like cloud storage or databases.

Which feature helps visualize relationships among entities in Data Cloud?

Identity Graph
B. Data Streams
C. Audience Builder
D. Activation Targets

Answer: A
Explanation: The Identity Graph maps customer identities across data sources and helps resolve identities for a single customer view.

What is a key benefit of calculated insights in Data Cloud?

Tracks login activities
B. Automatically sends emails
C. Derives KPIs from unified data
D. Stores backup data

Answer: C
Explanation: Calculated insights are used to compute business metrics (like lifetime value) from harmonized data in the data model.

What is the primary use of the Data Model Object (DMO) in Data Cloud?

Enforce role-based access control
B. Structure data based on business concepts
C. Store login credentials
D. Manage sandbox environments

Answer: B
Explanation: DMOs represent business concepts like individuals, orders, or products and are used in the harmonized data model for analysis and activation.

Which Salesforce tool allows Data Cloud to integrate with Marketing Cloud for personalization?

Einstein GPT
B. Journey Builder
C. Activation Target
D. AppExchange

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Targets connect Data Cloud audiences and insights with Salesforce tools like Marketing Cloud, enabling personalized experiences.

Which permission is required to manage data streams in Data Cloud?

Data Cloud Viewer
B. System Administrator
C. Data Cloud Admin
D. Platform Event Manager

Answer: C
Explanation: The Data Cloud Admin permission set grants access to manage data streams, mappings, and configurations in Salesforce Data Cloud.

What is the purpose of a Data Bundle in Data Cloud?

Store encrypted files
B. Combine multiple calculated insights
C. Package data for external transfer
D. Bundle related DMOs for ingestion

Answer: D
Explanation: A Data Bundle includes grouped data model objects that are logically related and ingested together to maintain integrity.

How is PII (Personally Identifiable Information) handled in Data Cloud?

Stored as plaintext
B. Obfuscated using encryption and policies
C. Replaced with dummy data
D. Removed during ingestion

Answer: B
Explanation: PII is protected using encryption and data policies that define how sensitive fields are handled during processing.

Which of the following is a prerequisite to activating audiences in Marketing Cloud from Data Cloud?

Audience has at least 10 members
B. Identity resolution must be complete
C. Einstein must be enabled
D. Calculated insight must be used

Answer: B
Explanation: Identity resolution ensures profiles are unified, which is necessary for meaningful and accurate audience activation.

Which tool within Data Cloud lets consultants segment customers using profile attributes and behaviors?

Segment Builder
B. Identity Graph
C. Data Mapper
D. Activation Target

Answer: A
Explanation: The Segment Builder enables consultants to create customer segments based on profile and behavioral data.

Which Salesforce platform license is required for using Data Cloud?

Platform Plus
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Data Cloud License
D. Service Cloud License

Answer: C
Explanation: The Data Cloud License is essential to access and use the functionalities offered by Salesforce Data Cloud.

What is the main function of harmonization in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Store raw data
B. Format dashboards
C. Standardize and unify data into a common model
D. Schedule batch jobs

Answer: C
Explanation: Harmonization standardizes disparate data into a consistent format aligned with DMOs for better usability.

What type of data can be ingested into Data Cloud?

Only structured data
B. Structured and unstructured data
C. Only Salesforce CRM data
D. Only CSV files

Answer: B
Explanation: Data Cloud supports ingestion of structured, semi-structured, and unstructured data from various sources.

What is a Data Stream in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Visual report generator
B. Tool to upload images
C. Ingestion pipeline connecting source data
D. Customer support ticket log

Answer: C
Explanation: Data Streams define how external source data is ingested into Salesforce Data Cloud for harmonization.

Which component helps define how incoming data maps to the harmonized data model?

Segment Builder
B. Data Mapper
C. AppExchange
D. Calculated Insight

Answer: B
Explanation: The Data Mapper is used to map fields from ingested datasets to the appropriate DMOs in the harmonized data layer.

What is the role of lookup relationships in DMOs?

Allow importing data from external apps
B. Link DMOs to express relationships between entities
C. Enable multi-factor authentication
D. Encrypt sensitive fields

Answer: B
Explanation: Lookup relationships define how different DMOs relate to each other, like connecting a Contact to an Account.

What makes calculated insights dynamic in Data Cloud?

AI predictions
B. They update automatically with refreshed data
C. Stored in sandbox
D. Written in Apex code

Answer: B
Explanation: Calculated insights dynamically update based on the latest ingested and harmonized data without manual recalculation.

Which cloud-based sources can be connected to Data Cloud for ingestion? (Choose two)

Google Cloud Storage
B. Salesforce CRM
C. Microsoft Word
D. Tableau Desktop

Answer: A, B
Explanation: Data Cloud can connect to data from Salesforce CRM and Google Cloud Storage, among others.

How does Data Cloud help with regulatory compliance like GDPR?

Deletes user profiles monthly
B. Supports data policies and consent management
C. Disables email tracking
D. Limits dashboard views

Answer: B
Explanation: Data Cloud supports data policies, consent flags, and encryption, helping clients remain compliant with privacy regulations.

Which Salesforce feature is used to extend Data Cloud to third-party applications?

Flow Builder
B. Webhooks
C. Activation Connectors
D. Visualforce

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Connectors allow activation of insights and audiences to external platforms like advertising tools and apps.

What must be defined before building a calculated insight?

Identity Graph
B. Harmonized data mapping
C. Activation target
D. Web-to-lead form

Answer: B
Explanation: Calculated insights rely on harmonized data, which must be properly mapped to the DMOs beforehand.

Which scenario best illustrates the use of segmentation in Data Cloud?

Creating a user login
B. Grouping customers who bought product X
C. Encrypting sensitive fields
D. Running data deduplication

Answer: B
Explanation: Segmentation involves grouping customers based on behaviors or attributes, such as purchase history.

How often can batch data ingestion be scheduled in Data Cloud?

Once a week
B. On demand only
C. As frequently as every hour
D. Monthly only

Answer: C
Explanation: Batch ingestion can be scheduled hourly, daily, or at custom intervals depending on data needs.

What is required for cross-cloud activation from Data Cloud to Salesforce Marketing Cloud?

Datorama subscription
B. Connected Activation Target
C. AppExchange license
D. OAuth approval form

Answer: B
Explanation: Connected Activation Targets allow for smooth data flow and campaign activation between Data Cloud and Marketing Cloud.

Which object type is primarily used to represent customers in Data Cloud?

Product DMO
B. Individual DMO
C. Asset DMO
D. Profile DMO

Answer: B
Explanation: The Individual DMO represents customers or individuals and forms the basis for identity resolution.

What is the advantage of using Data Cloud over a traditional CRM?

Runs on desktop
B. Handles IoT data only
C. Enables real-time personalization at scale
D. Limited to email data only

Answer: C
Explanation: Data Cloud enables real-time data ingestion, unification, and activation, far beyond traditional CRM capabilities.

Which field in Data Cloud should be used for joining data between DMOs?

Record Type
B. Lookup Field
C. External ID
D. Email Opt-in

Answer: B
Explanation: Lookup fields link DMOs for relational mapping and join operations during harmonization.

What determines when a calculated insight is updated?

User login
B. Sandbox refresh
C. Ingested data changes
D. Manual trigger

Answer: C
Explanation: Calculated insights are automatically updated when new data is ingested and harmonized.

What happens if identity resolution is not configured correctly?

Users cannot log in
B. Duplicate profiles may exist
C. Activation fails permanently
D. Data is deleted

Answer: B
Explanation: Without proper identity resolution, duplicate customer profiles remain, reducing segmentation and personalization accuracy.

Which component allows consultants to trace the data lineage in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Data Inspector
B. Dataflow Monitor
C. Identity Graph Viewer
D. Data Lineage Viewer

Answer: D
Explanation: The Data Lineage Viewer helps consultants understand how data flows from ingestion through mapping, harmonization, and insights—essential for troubleshooting and audits.

What does the term “streaming ingestion” mean in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Uploading files via FTP
B. Manual import from external systems
C. Receiving and processing data in near real-time
D. Running hourly batch jobs

Answer: C
Explanation: Streaming ingestion refers to real-time ingestion of data from platforms or events as they occur, without waiting for scheduled jobs.

Which object would best represent a customer’s purchased product in Data Cloud?

Individual DMO
B. Order Line DMO
C. Product Interaction DMO
D. Asset DMO

Answer: D
Explanation: The Asset DMO is used to represent customer-owned products or services, like purchases or subscriptions.

Which use case would best utilize Calculated Insights?

Archiving old data
B. Triggering workflow rules
C. Measuring Customer Lifetime Value (CLV)
D. Generating support cases

Answer: C
Explanation: Calculated Insights help derive KPIs like CLV, churn probability, and average order value, based on harmonized data.

What are the two essential components for successful identity resolution?

Consent and Cookies
B. Match rules and resolution rules
C. Sandbox and Debug Logs
D. Dataflows and Permission Sets

Answer: B
Explanation: Match rules define how records are compared, while resolution rules determine how matched records are merged.

Which field is commonly used as a unique identifier in identity resolution?

Country
B. Birth Date
C. Email Address
D. Zip Code

Answer: C
Explanation: Email address is a typical unique identifier used to match customer records across systems.

A consultant wants to activate audience data to Facebook Ads. What should they configure?

Data Bundle
B. Consent Flags
C. Activation Target
D. Data Graph

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Targets enable the connection between Salesforce Data Cloud and external platforms like Facebook Ads for audience targeting.

How is data from Salesforce Sales Cloud typically ingested into Data Cloud?

Via APIs only
B. Through SFTP uploads
C. Using native Data Streams
D. By manual import

Answer: C
Explanation: Native Data Streams enable seamless, secure ingestion of CRM data from Salesforce Sales Cloud.

What should a consultant check if data ingestion from a CSV fails?

Segment rules
B. Mapping schema
C. File delimiter and structure
D. Audience builder

Answer: C
Explanation: Errors in CSV ingestion often stem from incorrect formatting, delimiter issues, or missing headers.

What is a Segment in Salesforce Data Cloud used for?

Automating reports
B. Assigning user roles
C. Grouping customer profiles based on criteria
D. Storing raw data

Answer: C
Explanation: A Segment allows consultants to group customer profiles based on behaviors, demographics, or calculated insights.

A retail company wants to exclude customers who opted out of emails. What should they use in the Segment Builder?

Join
B. Filter using consent status
C. Data Mapping
D. Activation delay

Answer: B
Explanation: Filtering by consent status in Segment Builder ensures compliant, permission-based targeting.

Which object helps describe customer interactions across multiple touchpoints?

Individual
B. Asset
C. Engagement DMO
D. Consent DMO

Answer: C
Explanation: Engagement DMO captures customer interactions across email, web, support, and more.

What is the result of setting overly strict match rules in identity resolution?

Reduced segmentation
B. Duplicate profiles remain
C. False positive merges
D. Fewer matched identities

Answer: D
Explanation: Overly strict match rules reduce the number of matched profiles, potentially leading to fragmented identity resolution.

How can you control what customer data is sent to activation platforms?

Use Identity Graph
B. Use data usage policies
C. Modify the dashboard
D. Restrict DMO visibility

Answer: B
Explanation: Data usage policies help define what can and cannot be shared with activation platforms, improving compliance.

What is the purpose of activation in Data Cloud?

Backup storage
B. User registration
C. Pushing insights and segments to external platforms
D. Running marketing reports

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation involves sending unified insights and audience segments to tools like Marketing Cloud, Facebook, or Google Ads.

How can consultants monitor the health of data ingestion pipelines?

Through Debug Logs
B. Using Data Stream Monitoring
C. Data Explorer
D. DMO Inspector

Answer: B
Explanation: Data Stream Monitoring helps ensure data ingestion is proceeding correctly, with logs and alerts on errors.

What is the consequence of poor data harmonization?

Reduced storage
B. Delayed campaign emails
C. Inconsistent customer views
D. Limited app installs

Answer: C
Explanation: Without harmonization, customer data remains fragmented, leading to disjointed customer profiles and insights.

Which calculated insight example best supports upselling strategies?

Average session time
B. Purchase frequency
C. CLV (Customer Lifetime Value)
D. Email open rate

Answer: C
Explanation: Customer Lifetime Value helps target high-value customers for upselling opportunities.

A consultant notices duplicate customer records in segments. What is likely missing?

Data encryption
B. Harmonized schema
C. Identity resolution configuration
D. Consent flag

Answer: C
Explanation: Duplicates indicate identity resolution has not been correctly configured, preventing unification.

Which Salesforce tool allows you to visualize segments over time?

Reports and Dashboards
B. Data Lake Viewer
C. Segment Trends Tool
D. Tableau Connector

Answer: C
Explanation: The Segment Trends Tool helps visualize growth, shrinkage, and trends in audience segments.

What format is required for external data ingestion into Salesforce Data Cloud?

JSON only
B. XML
C. CSV or Parquet
D. SQL

Answer: C
Explanation: Data Cloud supports CSV and Parquet file formats for batch ingestion.

Which capability allows dynamic updating of segments based on new data?

Static segmentation
B. Manual refresh
C. Real-time segmentation
D. Predictive modeling

Answer: C
Explanation: Real-time segmentation ensures customer groups are updated as new behavior or attributes are ingested.

What role does the Consent DMO play in Data Cloud?

Tracks social media profiles
B. Stores hashed passwords
C. Manages customer consent preferences
D. Filters bounce rates

Answer: C
Explanation: The Consent DMO helps manage and store customer permissions like email opt-in or cookie tracking consent.

What can be used to extend data processing capabilities beyond Data Cloud?

Einstein GPT
B. AppExchange Apps
C. External Activation APIs
D. Tableau CRM

Answer: D
Explanation: Tableau CRM (formerly Einstein Analytics) integrates with Data Cloud to deliver advanced visualizations and insights.

What action should be taken if calculated insights aren’t updating?

Check consent logs
B. Reconfigure identity graph
C. Verify harmonized data and refresh schedules
D. Increase sandbox storage

Answer: C
Explanation: If insights aren’t updating, ensure harmonized data mappings are correct and the data refresh process is functional.

What is the role of match rules in identity resolution?

Define data usage policies
B. Encrypt sensitive data
C. Compare records across data sources
D. Assign product SKUs

Answer: C
Explanation: Match rules compare fields like email or phone number across data sources to identify matching records.

Why is harmonized data important for audience segmentation?

Enables faster UI loading
B. Reduces campaign costs
C. Provides consistent fields for filters
D. Encrypts user data

Answer: C
Explanation: Segmentation relies on harmonized fields to apply consistent rules across diverse datasets.

Which calculated insight would help assess re-engagement success?

Abandon cart rate
B. Recent purchase activity
C. Time since last engagement
D. Lifetime orders

Answer: C
Explanation: Time since last engagement is useful for identifying inactive users and measuring the impact of re-engagement campaigns.

What ensures activation complies with data privacy laws like CCPA or GDPR?

Email opt-ins
B. Activation logs
C. Data usage policies and consent DMO
D. Data bundles

Answer: C
Explanation: Compliance is maintained through consent tracking (via Consent DMO) and data usage policies that restrict how data is shared.

What type of data is best suited for streaming ingestion in Data Cloud?

Customer service transcripts
B. IoT sensor readings
C. Old archived files
D. PDF documents

Answer: B
Explanation: IoT sensor readings, website events, and app clicks are perfect for streaming ingestion, which processes them in real time.

 

In Salesforce Data Cloud, what is the Identity Graph primarily used for?

Tracking API usage
B. Merging unrelated customer accounts
C. Visualizing unified customer identities
D. Creating email campaigns

Answer: C
Explanation: The Identity Graph provides a visual representation of connected identities across different sources, helping validate identity resolution outcomes.

Which standard Data Model Object (DMO) is best for storing web browsing behavior?

Individual
B. Interaction
C. Asset
D. Web Engagement

Answer: D
Explanation: The Web Engagement DMO is designed to capture and store website interaction data such as page views and clicks.

What happens when you enable “auto-refresh” on a Calculated Insight?

It deletes outdated data
B. It triggers manual recalculation
C. It keeps the metric updated with new ingested data
D. It disables the dashboard temporarily

Answer: C
Explanation: Auto-refresh ensures that Calculated Insights are updated automatically as new data flows into the platform.

What’s the key reason to use the harmonized data model in Data Cloud?

For faster deployment
B. To improve login speed
C. To unify data fields for consistency
D. To increase storage limits

Answer: C
Explanation: The harmonized data model allows standardization of diverse data sources into a common schema for reliable insights.

Which tool should a consultant use to check which fields are mapped during data ingestion?

Segment Builder
B. Mapping Viewer
C. Dataflow Monitor
D. Activation Manager

Answer: B
Explanation: The Mapping Viewer provides visibility into which source fields are mapped to which DMO fields, helping with validation.

What determines how segments are evaluated in real time?

Calculated Insight delay
B. Identity Graph refresh
C. Segment refresh policy
D. Data Bundle configuration

Answer: C
Explanation: The Segment Refresh Policy defines when and how frequently segments should be re-evaluated.

What should a consultant do if a calculated insight is returning null values?

Check permission sets
B. Reboot the org
C. Validate that source data is mapped and harmonized correctly
D. Reset API credentials

Answer: C
Explanation: Nulls in insights usually indicate missing or incorrect data mappings or incomplete harmonization.

Which activation type enables data to flow into Marketing Cloud Engagement?

Email Trigger
B. Data Extension Sync
C. Segment Export
D. Activation Target: Marketing Cloud

Answer: D
Explanation: An Activation Target to Marketing Cloud Engagement pushes profiles or segments into Email Studio or Journey Builder.

What is the advantage of using custom match rules in Identity Resolution?

Faster data storage
B. Tailored unification logic
C. Avoids licensing costs
D. Prevents calculated insights from recalculating

Answer: B
Explanation: Custom match rules let organizations define precise logic for matching records beyond default settings (e.g., fuzzy matching on phone + email).

A client requires strict compliance with GDPR. What should be implemented to enforce this in Data Cloud?

API Key encryption
B. Consent Management using Consent DMO
C. Daily backups
D. Segment expiration dates

Answer: B
Explanation: The Consent DMO allows tracking and honoring GDPR and CCPA requirements by storing user permissions like opt-in or data deletion.

In which object would you store a customer’s product registration details?

Asset DMO
B. Individual DMO
C. Purchase Intent DMO
D. Consent DMO

Answer: A
Explanation: Asset DMO stores owned products, services, and subscriptions—including registration and ownership details.

What is one benefit of using standard Data Model Objects (DMOs)?

Higher API limits
B. Prebuilt compatibility with identity resolution and segments
C. Quicker sandbox refresh
D. Unlimited file storage

Answer: B
Explanation: Standard DMOs are designed to work seamlessly with identity resolution, segments, and calculated insights, saving setup time.

What is a primary function of the Profile Explorer in Data Cloud?

Download all customer records
B. Visualize unified individual customer profiles
C. Export calculated insights
D. Set marketing preferences

Answer: B
Explanation: The Profile Explorer shows a 360-degree view of a unified customer profile, combining data from multiple sources.

What file format is NOT supported for data ingestion in Salesforce Data Cloud?

CSV
B. JSON
C. Parquet
D. PDF

Answer: D
Explanation: PDF files are not supported for ingestion. CSV and Parquet are the primary supported formats.

What should a consultant configure to map a new data field from a source system?

Segment Builder
B. Dataflow
C. Data Mapping Configuration
D. Insight Policy

Answer: C
Explanation: The Data Mapping Configuration is where consultants assign incoming fields to DMO fields, ensuring correct harmonization.

What is a common reason for segmentation delays in Data Cloud?

Too many custom permissions
B. Deactivated admin profiles
C. Slow identity resolution refresh cycles
D. Password expiration

Answer: C
Explanation: If identity resolution isn’t refreshed frequently, segmentation logic based on unified profiles may delay.

What are Data Bundles used for in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Segment grouping
B. Email campaign management
C. Sharing multiple datasets as a package
D. Visualizing sales KPIs

Answer: C
Explanation: Data Bundles allow packaging and exporting multiple datasets or profiles together, often for activation.

What feature helps Salesforce Data Cloud track customer engagement across channels?

Consent Management
B. Customer Lifetime Value
C. Engagement DMO
D. Harmonization Templates

Answer: C
Explanation: The Engagement DMO logs interactions across digital, in-store, email, and mobile, providing omni-channel insights.

Why might a consultant choose fuzzy matching in a match rule?

To allow faster report exports
B. To group identical customer profiles
C. To detect similar but not identical values
D. To remove API limitations

Answer: C
Explanation: Fuzzy matching detects partial or approximate matches, useful when customers have inconsistent input formats (e.g., “Jon” vs. “John”).

What happens when a profile no longer meets segment conditions?

The system archives it
B. It’s automatically removed from the segment
C. It’s flagged for review
D. A support case is created

Answer: B
Explanation: Profiles automatically exit segments when they no longer meet the defined conditions, ensuring real-time relevance.

What does an Activation Flow do?

Stores email templates
B. Unifies contact records
C. Pushes data to external destinations like ad platforms
D. Creates reports in Tableau

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Flows move customer data or segment members to external platforms like Google Ads, Facebook, or Marketing Cloud.

Which two components are required to build a calculated insight?

Dashboard and report
B. Data model and Salesforce Shield
C. SQL logic and data source
D. Consent flag and DMP

Answer: C
Explanation: Calculated Insights rely on SQL logic applied to the harmonized data sources to produce metrics like LTV or churn.

Which Salesforce product is most directly integrated with Data Cloud for marketing use cases?

Service Cloud
B. Tableau
C. Marketing Cloud Engagement
D. Experience Cloud

Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing Cloud Engagement integrates directly with Data Cloud, allowing audience activation and journey triggering.

Why is harmonization necessary before identity resolution?

It increases match scores
B. It removes inactive users
C. It ensures that fields are aligned across sources
D. It enables SSO login

Answer: C
Explanation: Harmonization aligns field names and data formats across systems, which is a prerequisite for accurate identity resolution.

What benefit does a persistent ID provide in Data Cloud?

Encrypts consent
B. Tracks external file uploads
C. Maintains a consistent identity across systems
D. Prevents duplicate calculated insights

Answer: C
Explanation: The persistent ID is a stable identifier assigned during identity resolution, crucial for tracking unified profiles across channels.

What component allows you to connect real-time interaction data from websites?

Dataflow API
B. Web SDK
C. Batch Connector
D. Mobile Cloud

Answer: B
Explanation: The Web SDK captures real-time web behavior and sends it directly to Salesforce Data Cloud for processing.

What’s the first step before setting up segments in Data Cloud?

Enable Multi-factor Authentication
B. Create custom dashboards
C. Ingest and harmonize data
D. Configure Tableau pipeline

Answer: C
Explanation: Data ingestion and harmonization must be completed before any audience segmentation can begin.

Which user role is typically responsible for managing activation flows?

Developer
B. Data Scientist
C. Marketing Administrator
D. Salesforce Architect

Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing administrators or consultants typically manage activation flows to ad platforms or marketing systems.

Which feature allows batch data uploads via UI?

Activation Manager
B. Data Stream Setup
C. File Upload Console
D. Segment Dashboard

Answer: C
Explanation: The File Upload Console allows users to manually upload CSV or Parquet files into Salesforce Data Cloud.

A company wants to create a segment of customers who purchased in the last 30 days. What should they use?

Consent flag
B. Web Engagement filter
C. Date-based filter in Segment Builder
D. Identity Graph Viewer

Answer: C
Explanation: Segment Builder supports date-based filtering, which is ideal for time-bound conditions like “last 30 days.”

 

What is the function of the ‘Activation Target’ in Data Cloud?

To encrypt data fields before storage
B. To define destinations for segment exports
C. To create calculated metrics
D. To map ingestion files

Answer: B
Explanation: Activation Targets specify where the segments or data should be sent (e.g., ad platforms, Marketing Cloud), enabling audience activation.

What is a critical reason to configure the “Individual” object in identity resolution?

It helps store consent data
B. It prevents duplicate schema fields
C. It serves as the anchor for unified profiles
D. It boosts segment refresh rates

Answer: C
Explanation: The Individual object is the core identity object in Data Cloud, used as the anchor point for merging identities across systems.

Which type of segment evaluation ensures immediate reflection of user behavior changes?

Batch evaluation
B. Static evaluation
C. Real-time evaluation
D. Delayed mode

Answer: C
Explanation: Real-time segment evaluation updates customer profiles and segment membership as soon as qualifying data arrives.

Which object would be best to track a customer’s support ticket history?

Individual
B. Interaction
C. Asset
D. Case DMO

Answer: D
Explanation: The Case DMO is intended to capture support ticket or customer service request details in Data Cloud.

When troubleshooting missing records in a segment, what is the most useful first step?

Reset the dataflow
B. Clear browser cache
C. Use the Profile Explorer to validate source data
D. Contact Salesforce support

Answer: C
Explanation: The Profile Explorer allows consultants to check if key data fields exist and are properly harmonized before they’re used in segments.

Which tool provides a detailed view of how data from various sources resolves into a unified customer profile?

Segment Monitor
B. Data Ingestion Wizard
C. Identity Graph
D. Consent Inspector

Answer: C
Explanation: The Identity Graph visually displays how source identities connect and unify, making it a powerful debugging tool.

What’s the maximum number of match rules allowed in a match rule set (as of latest Salesforce documentation)?

3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Answer: C
Explanation: Salesforce currently allows up to 10 match rules per match rule set in Identity Resolution.

What is the purpose of a “Calculated Insight Output Object”?

To track failed dataflows
B. To define export frequency
C. To store the result of a calculated insight
D. To push profiles to Tableau

Answer: C
Explanation: The Calculated Insight Output Object holds the results of the insight logic (e.g., customer score, lifetime value).

Which action is needed after modifying a match rule in Identity Resolution?

Clear cache
B. Refresh the identity graph
C. Activate a new dataflow
D. Manually update segments

Answer: B
Explanation: After changes in match rules, it’s necessary to refresh the Identity Graph so the platform can re-evaluate profile matches.

What does a “Segment Export Job” do?

Rebuilds a calculated insight
B. Deletes inactive profiles
C. Moves segment data to activation targets
D. Stores ingestion schemas

Answer: C
Explanation: A Segment Export Job is the mechanism that pushes segment member data to external tools for activation or advertising.

Which object would best represent product interactions like “Add to Cart” or “Product View”?

Asset
B. Web Engagement
C. Purchase Intent
D. Consent

Answer: C
Explanation: Purchase Intent captures shopping behaviors like product interest, cart additions, or browsing — critical for eCommerce personalization.

A client wants to see conversion rate over time. What should the consultant create?

Activation Target
B. Segment
C. Consent DMO
D. Calculated Insight with time-based grouping

Answer: D
Explanation: A Calculated Insight that groups data over time will effectively track performance metrics like conversion rate trends.

What is the primary role of harmonization in Salesforce Data Cloud?

Encrypt data for compliance
B. Normalize field structures across sources
C. Schedule automated data loads
D. Define login rules for users

Answer: B
Explanation: Harmonization ensures that data from various sources conforms to a standardized schema, enabling consistency across DMOs.

What should be done if incoming data includes an unsupported field format?

Ingest anyway
B. Ignore the row
C. Transform or map the field to a supported format
D. Enable anonymous mode

Answer: C
Explanation: Data should be transformed or mapped correctly to match DMO requirements before ingestion for successful harmonization.

What is the maximum number of calculated insights per org (based on current limits)?

100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

Answer: C
Explanation: As of current Salesforce limits, each org can have up to 500 Calculated Insights defined and active.

Which data source type requires the use of a connector and OAuth configuration?

Flat file
B. Google Cloud Storage
C. Marketing Cloud
D. API ingestion from Excel

Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing Cloud and other Salesforce products typically require OAuth-based authentication and a secure connector setup.

When would you use the “Consent Event DMO”?

To track support ticket events
B. To record updates to opt-in/opt-out preferences
C. To display sales conversions
D. To activate audiences to Facebook

Answer: B
Explanation: The Consent Event DMO records changes to a person’s privacy or marketing preferences, critical for compliance.

What’s one reason a segment may appear smaller than expected?

Data limit exceeded
B. Incomplete identity resolution
C. Too many profiles unified
D. Segment timeout error

Answer: B
Explanation: A smaller segment often indicates that identity resolution has not linked all relevant records, reducing profile coverage.

What allows a client to send segments to both Marketing Cloud and an ad platform simultaneously?

Consent rule
B. Multi-path activation
C. Activation Flow with multiple destinations
D. Harmonization override

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Flows can include multiple targets, enabling simultaneous delivery of segments to Marketing Cloud, ad platforms, etc.

What does “Data Ingestion Monitoring” primarily help with?

Optimizing ad budgets
B. Reviewing login attempts
C. Troubleshooting failed or delayed data imports
D. Mapping audience journeys

Answer: C
Explanation: Ingestion Monitoring tools help consultants identify issues with source data loads, like errors, delays, or missing files.

What does the “Segment Criteria Builder” allow consultants to do?

Set CRM permissions
B. Define conditions for customer inclusion in a segment
C. Automate report delivery
D. Configure encryption settings

Answer: B
Explanation: The Segment Criteria Builder is a UI that lets users define inclusion/exclusion logic for profile segmentation.

Which object captures multi-channel engagement data for a single user?

Marketing DMO
B. Interaction DMO
C. Identity Resolution Object
D. Segment Export

Answer: B
Explanation: The Interaction DMO stores cross-channel activities (email, app, support, etc.) tied to the unified customer identity.

A client wants to push segments to Amazon Ads. What is required?

Identity Graph refresh
B. CSV export only
C. Activation target integration setup
D. Manual ingestion via API

Answer: C
Explanation: Pushing data to external platforms like Amazon Ads requires Activation Target configuration and connector setup.

Why are Calculated Insights better than traditional reports for some use cases?

They use Tableau formatting
B. They avoid consent rules
C. They generate metrics dynamically on harmonized data
D. They store data externally

Answer: C
Explanation: Calculated Insights run on real-time harmonized data, allowing for faster, dynamic metric generation compared to static reports.

Which data object should be used to store data on newsletter opt-ins?

Consent DMO
B. Interaction DMO
C. Engagement DMO
D. Asset DMO

Answer: A
Explanation: Consent DMO is used to record a user’s opt-in and preference data, including marketing communications like newsletters.

What are “Unmapped Fields” in data ingestion?

Fields that fail QA
B. Fields ignored due to missing schema mapping
C. Fields only visible in Tableau
D. Calculated metrics

Answer: B
Explanation: If a field is not mapped to a DMO field, it becomes unmapped and is not ingested into the harmonized layer.

How does Data Cloud maintain data privacy during external activation?

Enforces multi-factor login
B. Masks data in UI
C. Honors data-sharing and consent preferences during export
D. Encrypts files in Excel

Answer: C
Explanation: Data Cloud honors consent settings and only exports data for customers who have opted in or met defined sharing rules.

Which Salesforce product benefits most from segments built in Data Cloud?

Experience Cloud
B. Service Cloud
C. Marketing Cloud Engagement
D. Revenue Cloud

Answer: C
Explanation: Marketing Cloud Engagement consumes Data Cloud segments for audience targeting in email and mobile journeys.

What is required to ensure consistent profile identity over time?

Consent updates
B. Persistent ID from Identity Resolution
C. Web SDK installation
D. Calculated insights

Answer: B
Explanation: A Persistent ID provides a durable, stable identifier across sessions, channels, and data sources.

What does Data Cloud use to manage metadata about unified records?

Identity Graph Viewer
B. Metadata Configuration Object
C. Profile Object Metadata
D. Harmonized Object Store

Answer: C
Explanation: The Profile Object Metadata stores schema and configuration details about unified profile records in Data Cloud.

 

What is the minimum required field for identity resolution to function on a data model object (DMO)?

First Name
B. Unique External ID
C. Match Key
D. Created Date

Answer: C
Explanation: Match Keys are required to perform identity resolution because they define which fields are used to compare records across datasets.

When data is ingested but not available in the unified profile, what is the likely issue?

The file size is too large
B. The harmonization mapping is missing
C. The system cache is full
D. The user session expired

Answer: B
Explanation: Data not appearing in profiles typically results from incomplete or incorrect harmonization mapping, meaning fields aren’t properly aligned to DMOs.

Which identity resolution setting determines how confidence in a match is calculated?

Evaluation Frequency
B. Match Key Weighting
C. Segment Qualification Rule
D. Consent Rule Set

Answer: B
Explanation: Match Key Weighting allows setting different confidence values for matching rules, affecting how identities are merged.

Which activation method ensures audience delivery to an external platform every day at 9 AM?

Manual push
B. On-demand export
C. Scheduled Activation Job
D. Dynamic Segment Pull

Answer: C
Explanation: Scheduled Activation Jobs let you automatically push segments to external destinations at specified intervals (e.g., daily, hourly).

How does Salesforce Data Cloud ensure GDPR compliance with profile data?

Enables real-time encryption
B. Allows profile-level consent tracking
C. Stores data in a single region
D. Prevents export to third-party systems

Answer: B
Explanation: GDPR compliance is supported via Consent DMOs, enabling individual-level tracking of data permissions and preferences.

What Salesforce tool would you use to visually validate how multiple identities are unified?

Profile Explorer
B. Identity Graph Viewer
C. Harmonization Monitor
D. Segment Audit Trail

Answer: B
Explanation: The Identity Graph Viewer provides a visual interface showing how source records map to unified identities.

Which of the following is not a core component of the Salesforce Data Cloud architecture?

Data Lake Object
B. Data Model Object (DMO)
C. Identity Resolution Engine
D. Real-time Stream Processor

Answer: A
Explanation: Data Lake Object is not a core component; Data Cloud uses DMOs, identity resolution, and streaming ingestion, but not traditional data lake structures.

In a healthcare use case, which data object might store patient communication preferences?

Consent DMO
B. Care Plan DMO
C. Asset DMO
D. Interaction DMO

Answer: A
Explanation: Consent DMOs are used to store communication permissions — essential in regulated industries like healthcare.

Which type of data ingestion supports near real-time data availability in Data Cloud?

SFTP file uploads
B. Batch ingestion
C. Streaming ingestion
D. CSV drag-and-drop

Answer: C
Explanation: Streaming ingestion enables real-time or near real-time data availability, ideal for personalization and quick updates.

What’s the primary benefit of using calculated insights within segments?

They speed up harmonization
B. They apply filters dynamically based on derived metrics
C. They replace identity resolution rules
D. They encrypt outbound data

Answer: B
Explanation: Calculated insights allow segments to be filtered using dynamic business metrics like total spend or visit frequency.

Which feature prevents Data Cloud from exporting customer data that violates consent?

Consent Filters
B. Privacy Shield
C. Activation Blocker
D. Audience Governance Rule

Answer: A
Explanation: Consent Filters enforce customer-level permissions, ensuring only data with proper consent is activated or exported.

How many harmonization mappings can be created per DMO by default?

1
B. 3
C. 5
D. Unlimited

Answer: C
Explanation: Salesforce allows up to 5 harmonization mappings per DMO, enabling multiple source types to connect to the same object.

What object tracks changes to a user’s preferences over time?

Identity Event DMO
B. Preference History Log
C. Consent Event DMO
D. Calculated Insight

Answer: C
Explanation: Consent Event DMO records timestamped updates to communication preferences and legal consents.

What action helps improve match accuracy in identity resolution?

Removing all but one match key
B. Weighting keys based on reliability
C. Turning off persistent ID
D. Deleting interaction data

Answer: B
Explanation: Adjusting match key weighting ensures more reliable fields (e.g., email) are given higher priority, improving match confidence.

Which segment type recalculates every time qualifying data changes?

Static
B. Dynamic
C. Batch
D. Instant

Answer: B
Explanation: Dynamic segments update in near-real time based on changes in harmonized or unified data.

Which of the following roles is best suited to configure identity resolution?

Marketing Specialist
B. Salesforce Admin
C. Data Cloud Consultant
D. Tableau Developer

Answer: C
Explanation: The Salesforce Data Cloud Consultant understands data models, match rules, and identity configurations, making them the best fit.

What should you use to visualize data ingestion errors and their frequency?

Activation Logs
B. Ingestion Monitor
C. Identity Graph Viewer
D. Schema Mapper

Answer: B
Explanation: The Ingestion Monitor shows errors, missing fields, and volume mismatches in imported datasets.

How does Data Cloud handle overlapping identities across multiple systems?

It deletes duplicates
B. It creates pseudo-profiles
C. It merges them using identity resolution
D. It ignores unmatched records

Answer: C
Explanation: Identity Resolution uses match rules to unify overlapping identities, preventing duplicates and enabling a single view.

What is an Activation Flow in Salesforce Data Cloud?

A batch job that purges inactive users
B. A process to validate identity merges
C. A defined path to push segments to activation targets
D. A set of match keys for unifying accounts

Answer: C
Explanation: Activation Flows push segment members to configured destinations like Marketing Cloud or ad platforms.

Which Salesforce product typically consumes real-time segments from Data Cloud for campaigns?

Sales Cloud
B. Service Cloud
C. Commerce Cloud
D. Marketing Cloud

Answer: D
Explanation: Marketing Cloud Engagement uses Data Cloud segments for real-time personalization and journey orchestration.

How many fields can be used in a single match key rule?

1
B. Up to 2
C. Up to 5
D. Unlimited

Answer: C
Explanation: Each match key rule can include up to 5 fields, enhancing match flexibility and accuracy.

What happens when a harmonization mapping is disabled?

Data is deleted
B. Records remain but stop updating
C. Data continues to flow without transformation
D. Segment jobs fail immediately

Answer: B
Explanation: If a harmonization mapping is disabled, existing records remain but are no longer updated with new data from that source.

Which identity field is most stable across multiple devices and systems?

Device ID
B. Session Token
C. Email Address
D. Temporary User ID

Answer: C
Explanation: Email address is widely used and typically consistent across devices, making it a strong match key.

Which object in Data Cloud enables tracking of lifecycle events like purchases or returns?

Asset DMO
B. Lifecycle DMO
C. Transaction DMO
D. Interaction DMO

Answer: D
Explanation: The Interaction DMO includes key engagement and transaction events, including purchases, views, or support tickets.

When should you refresh the identity graph manually?

Before every activation
B. After publishing a match rule change
C. During login setup
D. When exporting to CSV

Answer: B
Explanation: Changes to match rules or match key configurations require a manual refresh of the Identity Graph to apply updates.

Which component enables segment qualification using calculated insight fields?

Insight Trigger
B. Insight Filter Builder
C. Segment Criteria Builder
D. Profile Explorer

Answer: C
Explanation: The Segment Criteria Builder allows filtering on calculated insight values, such as purchase totals or recency.

What’s the best way to ensure that new source data maps accurately to the data model?

Test with fake data
B. Use auto-mapping exclusively
C. Create and validate a harmonization mapping
D. Ingest directly into the identity resolution engine

Answer: C
Explanation: Harmonization mapping aligns source fields to standard DMOs, ensuring consistency and proper integration.