Sample Questions and Answers
What is the relevance of penetration testing in cloud audits?
A) It identifies exploitable vulnerabilities before attackers do
B) It is unnecessary in cloud environments
C) It is prohibited in public clouds
D) It only applies to physical systems
Answer: A
Explanation: Pen testing validates the strength of implemented security controls.
How can role-based access control (RBAC) benefit cloud security?
A) It enforces least privilege by assigning access based on roles
B) It allows users to request any permission
C) It grants everyone admin rights
D) RBAC is obsolete
Answer: A
Explanation: RBAC reduces unnecessary access and limits exposure.
What is the purpose of continuous compliance in cloud environments?
A) To automate compliance checks and ensure ongoing adherence to standards
B) To perform audits only once a year
C) To delay remediation efforts
D) To replace governance requirements
Answer: A
Explanation: Continuous compliance tools enable real-time policy validation.
What does a cloud risk register contain?
A) Identified risks, their impact, likelihood, and mitigation strategies
B) Server IP addresses
C) Employee salaries
D) Marketing content
Answer: A
Explanation: It is a core document for managing cloud risk in audits.
How should auditors address vendor lock-in risk?
A) Evaluate contract terms, data portability, and exit strategies
B) Ignore lock-in concerns
C) Encourage full dependence on one provider
D) Avoid multicloud environments
Answer: A
Explanation: Lock-in affects long-term flexibility and cost.
Why are backup and restore procedures critical in cloud audits?
A) They ensure data availability during system failures or attacks
B) Backups are unnecessary in cloud environments
C) Providers guarantee no data loss
D) Restore tests are optional
Answer: A
Explanation: Data recovery is a key component of resilience and business continuity.
What is the purpose of data classification in the cloud?
A) To apply appropriate controls based on sensitivity and compliance requirements
B) To simplify billing
C) To reduce visibility
D) To eliminate security controls
Answer: A
Explanation: Classification drives correct handling and protection.
What is a benefit of federated identity in cloud?
A) Centralized access management across multiple systems and services
B) Disconnected login systems
C) Hard-coded passwords
D) Use of guest accounts only
Answer: A
Explanation: Federation improves security and user convenience.
What does cloud workload visibility refer to?
A) The ability to monitor and audit activity across all running services
B) Disabling telemetry features
C) Allowing full user access to logs
D) Ignoring logs in multicloud environments
Answer: A
Explanation: Visibility is essential to understand usage, performance, and security.
Why is audit trail integrity critical in cloud environments?
A) It ensures logs have not been altered, preserving their evidentiary value
B) Integrity is only for encryption keys
C) Logs can be deleted after review
D) Integrity is not measurable
Answer: A
Explanation: Tamper-proof logs are necessary for trustworthy forensic analysis.
What defines a strong cloud governance strategy?
A) Policies, controls, accountability, and continuous improvement
B) Limiting user access only
C) Isolated decision-making
D) Sole reliance on providers
Answer: A
Explanation: Governance ensures alignment of cloud usage with business objectives and risk tolerance.
What is the key benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cloud environments?
A) It allows for automated, consistent infrastructure provisioning and auditing
B) It removes the need for security controls
C) It replaces the need for governance
D) It is only relevant in private cloud environments
Answer: A
Explanation: IaC ensures repeatability, reduces human error, and simplifies compliance verification.
What is the main concern when using third-party tools in a cloud ecosystem?
A) Integration complexity and risk of introducing new vulnerabilities
B) They reduce operational efficiency
C) They are fully controlled by the cloud provider
D) Third-party tools have no impact on compliance
Answer: A
Explanation: Unvetted third-party tools can introduce unknown security risks and affect audit scope.
Which standard provides guidance for cloud privacy controls?
A) ISO/IEC 27701
B) ISO 14001
C) PCI DSS
D) COBIT 5
Answer: A
Explanation: ISO/IEC 27701 extends ISO/IEC 27001 and 27002 for privacy information management.
What is tenant isolation in cloud computing?
A) Mechanisms that prevent one customer’s data from being accessed by another
B) The use of private internet lines
C) Logging user activity
D) Storing all customer data in the same location
Answer: A
Explanation: Isolation is fundamental to ensuring multi-tenancy security in cloud services.
What risk is associated with shadow IT in cloud environments?
A) Lack of visibility and control over unapproved applications and services
B) Reduced cloud expenditure
C) Improved governance
D) Enhanced productivity monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation: Shadow IT can bypass official security controls, posing compliance and data leakage risks.
What is a key challenge in auditing multicloud environments?
A) Ensuring uniform security controls and policies across providers
B) Having only one access portal
C) Better pricing models
D) Improved single-cloud performance
Answer: A
Explanation: Inconsistent configurations and APIs make auditing more complex across multiple clouds.
What is essential for effective logging in cloud environments?
A) Centralized log collection and secure retention policies
B) Disabling system logs
C) Only logging successful operations
D) Using local storage for logs
Answer: A
Explanation: Centralized and secure logs help ensure forensic readiness and audit compliance.
Which document defines the legal relationship between a cloud provider and customer?
A) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
B) Marketing Brochure
C) Incident Response Plan
D) Penetration Testing Report
Answer: A
Explanation: SLAs establish expectations, responsibilities, and remedies for service issues.
Why is cloud data lineage important in audits?
A) It helps track data origin, transformation, and flow across systems
B) It eliminates the need for access controls
C) It measures cloud latency
D) It monitors billing activity
Answer: A
Explanation: Understanding data flow is essential for identifying potential risk points and compliance gaps.
What is a key feature of cloud-native disaster recovery?
A) Automated failover and geographically redundant backups
B) Manual restoration only
C) Local-only backup policies
D) No use of availability zones
Answer: A
Explanation: Cloud-native DR takes advantage of distributed resources and automation.
What audit objective is served by using cloud identity federation?
A) Simplified user authentication and centralized access control
B) Isolated identity systems
C) Decentralized access management
D) Disabling access logs
Answer: A
Explanation: Federated identity systems simplify control and audit of access across services.
What is the purpose of continuous monitoring in cloud environments?
A) Real-time visibility into system performance, security, and compliance
B) Annual system reviews only
C) Eliminating the need for change management
D) Disabling system alerts
Answer: A
Explanation: Continuous monitoring supports proactive detection and remediation.
What is a key principle of secure cloud architecture?
A) Defense-in-depth with layered controls
B) Flat network designs
C) Open access to all systems
D) Single-point authentication
Answer: A
Explanation: A multi-layered approach helps mitigate various attack vectors.
What does “least privilege” mean in cloud access control?
A) Users receive only the permissions necessary to perform their duties
B) All users have admin rights
C) All permissions are granted by default
D) No role restrictions are enforced
Answer: A
Explanation: Least privilege limits exposure and reduces the impact of compromised accounts.
What factor must auditors consider when reviewing encryption implementations?
A) Key management practices and algorithm strength
B) Whether the encryption is proprietary
C) Cost of encryption licensing
D) If users understand how encryption works
Answer: A
Explanation: Strong encryption is ineffective without secure key lifecycle management.
Which practice ensures that software changes in cloud environments do not introduce vulnerabilities?
A) Secure DevOps (DevSecOps)
B) Manual patching
C) Ignoring version control
D) Using test environments only
Answer: A
Explanation: DevSecOps integrates security into development pipelines.
What is the purpose of a cloud audit trail?
A) To record all actions and changes made within the cloud environment
B) To generate billing reports
C) To report service usage to marketing
D) To encrypt passwords
Answer: A
Explanation: Audit trails are essential for forensic investigations and regulatory audits.
What does tokenization in the cloud help achieve?
A) Protection of sensitive data by replacing it with non-sensitive equivalents
B) Faster CPU performance
C) More access for third parties
D) Encryption key distribution
Answer: A
Explanation: Tokenization minimizes data exposure while maintaining functionality.
Which of the following best represents the “5 characteristics” of cloud computing as defined by NIST?
A) On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, and measured service
B) Cost reduction, encryption, isolated servers, slow provisioning, and uptime guarantees
C) Annual billing, internet speed, long contracts, software bundling, and licensing
D) Centralized data centers, managed devices, and flat networks
Answer: A
Explanation: These characteristics form the foundation of cloud service models.
Why is data egress control important in cloud security?
A) It prevents unauthorized data transfers out of the cloud environment
B) It improves login speed
C) It reduces memory consumption
D) It disables firewall logs
Answer: A
Explanation: Controlling outbound data flow is essential for protecting sensitive information.
Which of the following supports auditability in cloud contracts?
A) Inclusion of right-to-audit clauses and evidence access terms
B) Removal of SLAs
C) Automatic renewal only
D) Verbal agreements
Answer: A
Explanation: Contracts must support auditor access to necessary records and systems.
What is the primary function of Cloud Access Security Brokers (CASBs)?
A) Enforce security policies between cloud service users and providers
B) Speed up VPN connections
C) Handle user billing
D) Encrypt network traffic
Answer: A
Explanation: CASBs enhance visibility and control over cloud service usage.
Which type of cloud service model offers the greatest customer control?
A) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C) Software as a Service (SaaS)
D) Function as a Service (FaaS)
Answer: A
Explanation: IaaS provides control over OS, storage, and applications.
Why is configuration drift dangerous in cloud environments?
A) It leads to unapproved and inconsistent system states over time
B) It improves flexibility
C) It reduces audit scope
D) It guarantees resilience
Answer: A
Explanation: Drift can introduce vulnerabilities and complicate compliance.
Which audit activity confirms that encryption keys are rotated as per policy?
A) Reviewing key management logs and key rotation schedules
B) Interviewing marketing staff
C) Monitoring CPU usage
D) Reviewing data egress reports
Answer: A
Explanation: Key rotation logs show compliance with data protection policies.
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