CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam

765 Questions and Answers

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CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Practice Test

 

Prepare for one of the most advanced cybersecurity certifications with our expertly designed CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Practice Test. Tailored for seasoned IT professionals and security architects, this practice test equips you with the knowledge and confidence needed to pass the CASP+ (CAS-004) exam and validate your ability to design and implement secure enterprise-level solutions.

At StudyLance.org, our CASP+ practice test is built to reflect the real exam format—featuring complex, scenario-based questions and simulations that test your strategic thinking and technical skills. Each question is supported with detailed explanations, helping you understand the “why” behind the correct answer and strengthening your grasp of advanced security concepts.

Core Topics Covered:

  • Security architecture and enterprise-level risk management

  • Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC)

  • Security operations and incident response

  • Technical integration of enterprise security

  • Cryptographic solutions and zero-trust frameworks

  • Cloud and virtualization security

This advanced-level practice exam is ideal for cybersecurity engineers, technical lead analysts, and professionals responsible for creating secure solutions across complex enterprise environments. It not only prepares you to pass the certification exam but also enhances your ability to lead security initiatives and manage enterprise risks.

Why Choose StudyLance for Your CASP+ Exam Preparation?

 

  • Covers all CAS-004 exam objectives with precision

  • Realistic questions modeled on actual exam difficulty

  • Detailed, exam-focused answer explanations

  • Instant access and downloadable format

  • Perfect for advanced-level cybersecurity professionals

The CompTIA CASP+ certification proves your mastery in enterprise security readiness, making you a valuable asset in any high-level cybersecurity role. Prepare with StudyLance.org to confidently tackle complex security challenges and pass the CASP+ exam on your first attempt.

Sample Questions and Answers

What is the primary purpose of data classification in an organization?

A) To encrypt all data
B) To categorize data based on sensitivity and criticality
C) To delete unnecessary data
D) To speed up access to all data

Answer: B) To categorize data based on sensitivity and criticality
Explanation: Data classification helps ensure appropriate controls are applied based on the data’s value and sensitivity.

Which of the following describes a honeypot?

A) A backup server
B) A decoy system designed to lure attackers
C) A firewall appliance
D) A type of malware

Answer: B) A decoy system designed to lure attackers
Explanation: Honeypots trap attackers to monitor their methods without risking actual systems.

What is the key difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?

A) Symmetric uses one key; asymmetric uses key pairs
B) Symmetric is slower than asymmetric
C) Asymmetric requires less computation
D) Symmetric is used only for digital signatures

Answer: A) Symmetric uses one key; asymmetric uses key pairs
Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses a single key for both encryption and decryption, whereas asymmetric uses a public/private key pair.

What does the principle of defense in depth imply?

A) Only one security control is necessary
B) Multiple layers of security controls are implemented
C) Focus on physical security only
D) Rely on antivirus software exclusively

Answer: B) Multiple layers of security controls are implemented
Explanation: Defense in depth provides redundancy by layering security measures.

Which of the following best explains a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack?

A) Attacker intercepts and possibly alters communication between two parties
B) Attacker floods network traffic
C) Attacker uses stolen credentials
D) Attacker installs ransomware

Answer: A) Attacker intercepts and possibly alters communication between two parties
Explanation: MITM attacks capture data flowing between users to eavesdrop or modify it.

What is the function of hashing in information security?

A) Encrypt data
B) Verify data integrity by creating a unique fingerprint
C) Compress files
D) Authenticate users

Answer: B) Verify data integrity by creating a unique fingerprint
Explanation: Hashing generates fixed-length values from data, allowing integrity verification.

What is the primary benefit of implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools?

A) Encrypt endpoint data
B) Detect and respond to threats on endpoints in real-time
C) Backup user data
D) Manage network access

Answer: B) Detect and respond to threats on endpoints in real-time
Explanation: EDR tools monitor endpoints to quickly identify and mitigate threats.

Which type of firewall filters traffic based on packet headers, such as IP addresses and ports?

A) Stateful inspection firewall
B) Packet-filtering firewall
C) Proxy firewall
D) Next-generation firewall

Answer: B) Packet-filtering firewall
Explanation: Packet-filtering firewalls examine header info to allow or block traffic.

What does the term “pivoting” refer to in penetration testing?

A) Changing encryption algorithms
B) Using a compromised system to attack other systems in the network
C) Restarting a system remotely
D) Disabling firewalls

Answer: B) Using a compromised system to attack other systems in the network
Explanation: Pivoting allows attackers to move laterally from one system to another.

What is the primary goal of business continuity planning (BCP)?

A) Maximize profits
B) Ensure critical business functions continue during and after a disruption
C) Manage employee attendance
D) Backup financial data only

Answer: B) Ensure critical business functions continue during and after a disruption
Explanation: BCP prepares organizations to maintain operations amid incidents.

Which of the following is an example of a physical security control?

A) Encryption
B) Biometric scanner
C) Antivirus software
D) Network segmentation

Answer: B) Biometric scanner
Explanation: Physical controls prevent unauthorized physical access to resources.

What type of malware restricts access to data or systems until a ransom is paid?

A) Trojan
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) Worm

Answer: B) Ransomware
Explanation: Ransomware encrypts data and demands payment for the decryption key.

What does the acronym AAA stand for in cybersecurity?

A) Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
B) Antivirus, Antivirus, Antivirus
C) Access, Alert, Audit
D) Application, Architecture, Automation

Answer: A) Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
Explanation: AAA represents key security services for user identity and access control.

What is the primary purpose of penetration testing?

A) To find and exploit vulnerabilities before attackers do
B) To install firewalls
C) To develop software
D) To enforce password policies

Answer: A) To find and exploit vulnerabilities before attackers do
Explanation: Pen tests simulate attacks to improve system security.

What is the primary purpose of using a Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)?

A) To encrypt data
B) To segment a network logically, improving security and performance
C) To replace physical cables
D) To store backups

Answer: B) To segment a network logically, improving security and performance
Explanation: VLANs create isolated network segments to control traffic and security.

What is a primary use case of Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) tools?

A) Automate and coordinate security incident responses
B) Manage user accounts
C) Encrypt email
D) Monitor physical access

Answer: A) Automate and coordinate security incident responses
Explanation: SOAR platforms improve response time by automating security workflows.

Which encryption algorithm is widely used for secure data transmission over the internet?

A) AES
B) DES
C) MD5
D) SHA-1

Answer: A) AES
Explanation: AES is a strong symmetric encryption standard widely used for data protection.

What is the primary security concern with Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policies?

A) Device speed
B) Increased risk of data leakage and unauthorized access
C) Device color
D) Device warranty

Answer: B) Increased risk of data leakage and unauthorized access
Explanation: BYOD introduces risks due to varied device security controls.

What is the function of a Digital Certificate?

A) To authenticate and verify ownership of a public key
B) To encrypt email only
C) To manage passwords
D) To backup data

Answer: A) To authenticate and verify ownership of a public key
Explanation: Digital certificates bind public keys to identities using a trusted authority.

What is a security concern related to cloud computing?

A) Unlimited storage
B) Data privacy and control over data in a shared environment
C) Faster processing speed
D) Reduced hardware costs

Answer: B) Data privacy and control over data in a shared environment
Explanation: Cloud environments require strong security controls to protect sensitive data.

What is the key goal of Incident Response (IR)?

A) Prevent any attacks
B) Detect, contain, and recover from security incidents
C) Encrypt all network traffic
D) Install antivirus

Answer: B) Detect, contain, and recover from security incidents
Explanation: IR focuses on handling and minimizing damage from security breaches.

What is a primary characteristic of a zero trust security model?

A) Trust all internal users by default
B) Verify every access request regardless of location
C) Only use passwords for authentication
D) Ignore external traffic

Answer: B) Verify every access request regardless of location
Explanation: Zero trust requires continuous verification of every user and device.

What is the purpose of multifactor authentication?

A) To eliminate passwords
B) To increase security by requiring multiple forms of verification
C) To speed up login
D) To disable biometric scans

Answer: B) To increase security by requiring multiple forms of verification
Explanation: MFA reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

Which attack involves injecting malicious scripts into trusted websites?

A) SQL injection
B) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
C) Phishing
D) Man-in-the-middle

Answer: B) Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Explanation: XSS attacks inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users.

What is the main benefit of network segmentation?

A) Faster internet
B) Limits spread of attacks by isolating network sections
C) Increases storage space
D) Simplifies password management

Answer: B) Limits spread of attacks by isolating network sections
Explanation: Segmentation confines breaches to smaller network parts.

What is the best practice for password management in a secure environment?

A) Use simple passwords
B) Use complex, unique passwords and password managers
C) Share passwords with coworkers
D) Write passwords on sticky notes

Answer: B) Use complex, unique passwords and password managers
Explanation: Strong password policies reduce the risk of credential compromise.

What is the purpose of a security baseline?

A) To define a minimum set of security controls for systems
B) To disable antivirus
C) To increase network speed
D) To reset passwords

Answer: A) To define a minimum set of security controls for systems
Explanation: Baselines ensure consistent security configurations.

Which of the following best defines the concept of risk management?

A) Avoiding all risks
B) Identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks to minimize impact
C) Ignoring small risks
D) Outsourcing all IT functions

Answer: B) Identifying, assessing, and prioritizing risks to minimize impact
Explanation: Risk management balances risk and mitigation strategies effectively.

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