Sample Questions and Answers
Which cloud security principle involves continuous monitoring and improvement?
A) Security as Code / Continuous Security
B) Static security policies
C) One-time audit only
D) Manual checks only
Answer: A
Explanation: Continuous monitoring detects and addresses threats in real-time.
What is Cloud Penetration Testing?
A) Simulated attack to find vulnerabilities in cloud environments
B) Data backup
C) User training
D) Cost analysis
Answer: A
Explanation: Pen testing identifies weaknesses before attackers exploit them.
What is a major challenge with Cloud Forensics?
A) Data volatility and lack of physical access to servers
B) Easy evidence collection
C) Unlimited data retention
D) No legal restrictions
Answer: A
Explanation: Cloud forensics require new methods due to dynamic and distributed nature.
How does Artificial Intelligence (AI) enhance cloud security?
A) Enables advanced threat detection and automated response
B) Increases manual workload
C) Removes encryption
D) Slows down systems
Answer: A
Explanation: AI can analyze large data sets to identify anomalous behaviors faster.
What type of cloud deployment model offers the greatest level of control and security to an organization?
A) Private Cloud
B) Public Cloud
C) Community Cloud
D) Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A
Explanation: Private clouds are dedicated to a single organization, allowing full control over security policies and configurations.
What is the main security risk associated with using multi-tenant public cloud services?
A) Data leakage between tenants
B) Physical theft of hardware
C) Lack of encryption options
D) Poor availability
Answer: A
Explanation: Multi-tenancy introduces risks where data from one tenant may be exposed to others due to misconfigurations or vulnerabilities.
How can cloud providers assure data integrity in transit?
A) Use hashing algorithms combined with encryption protocols such as TLS
B) Store data unencrypted
C) Use FTP for file transfer
D) Send data in plain text
Answer: A
Explanation: Hashing verifies data hasn’t been altered, and TLS secures data during transmission.
Which of the following is a benefit of Immutable Infrastructure in cloud security?
A) Prevents unauthorized changes by replacing rather than modifying resources
B) Increases attack surface
C) Requires manual patching
D) Decreases automation
Answer: A
Explanation: Immutable infrastructure ensures that infrastructure changes are made by replacement, reducing drift and configuration errors.
Which method is most effective to secure cloud storage buckets?
A) Applying strict access control policies and disabling public access by default
B) Making buckets publicly accessible for ease of access
C) Using default permissions without review
D) Sharing access credentials openly
Answer: A
Explanation: Tight access controls and disabling public access prevent unauthorized data exposure.
What is the role of Identity and Access Management (IAM) in cloud security?
A) Controls user permissions and access to cloud resources
B) Provides antivirus protection
C) Manages backups
D) Handles network routing
Answer: A
Explanation: IAM defines who can access what and enforces access controls.
Which encryption standard is commonly recommended for data at rest in the cloud?
A) AES-256
B) DES
C) MD5
D) SHA-1
Answer: A
Explanation: AES-256 is a strong encryption standard widely adopted for data protection.
What is a Cloud Native Security Architecture?
A) Security design principles and controls built specifically for cloud environments
B) Security measures designed for on-premises only
C) Firewall hardware only
D) Antivirus software
Answer: A
Explanation: Cloud native security leverages cloud-specific features and automation for protection.
What cloud security control is essential to prevent Data Exfiltration?
A) Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems
B) Unrestricted outbound network traffic
C) No monitoring
D) Open file sharing
Answer: A
Explanation: DLP tools monitor and block sensitive data leaving the network.
Which practice ensures continuous security compliance in dynamic cloud environments?
A) Infrastructure as Code (IaC) scanning and automated compliance checks
B) Manual monthly audits only
C) Ignoring configuration drift
D) Disabling logging
Answer: A
Explanation: IaC scanning detects insecure configurations before deployment.
What is the primary function of a Web Application Firewall (WAF) in cloud environments?
A) Protects web applications from common exploits like SQL injection and XSS
B) Encrypts databases
C) Manages user credentials
D) Balances network traffic
Answer: A
Explanation: WAFs monitor and filter HTTP traffic to prevent attacks on web applications.
What is the benefit of Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) in cloud security?
A) Users receive access permissions based on their job roles, reducing excessive privileges
B) Everyone gets full access
C) Permissions are random
D) It disables authentication
Answer: A
Explanation: RBAC simplifies permission management and enforces least privilege.
Which is the best approach to secure containerized applications?
A) Use image scanning, minimal base images, and runtime security monitoring
B) Use large, unverified images
C) Disable all logging
D) Share credentials inside containers
Answer: A
Explanation: Scanning ensures no vulnerabilities; minimal images reduce attack surface.
What is Data Residency in cloud computing?
A) Legal and compliance requirements dictating where data must be stored geographically
B) Physical hardware maintenance
C) Cloud provider location only
D) Backup frequency
Answer: A
Explanation: Data residency laws affect how and where data can be stored or processed.
Which cloud security technique ensures encryption keys never leave the hardware security module (HSM)?
A) Hardware Root of Trust
B) Software-based key storage
C) Cloud provider default keys
D) Storing keys in plain text
Answer: A
Explanation: HSMs securely generate, store, and use keys without exposing them.
What is a common challenge when implementing Cloud Disaster Recovery (DR)?
A) Ensuring DR plans are tested regularly and RTO/RPO meet business needs
B) Ignoring recovery objectives
C) Only backing up once a year
D) Using physical tapes only
Answer: A
Explanation: Regular testing confirms recovery processes work effectively.
Which cloud security standard is widely adopted for personal data protection in the EU?
A) GDPR
B) HIPAA
C) PCI-DSS
D) SOX
Answer: A
Explanation: GDPR mandates strict controls on personal data processing.
What is Cloud Workload Protection Platform (CWPP)?
A) Security solution focused on protecting workloads across cloud environments, including VMs and containers
B) A cloud cost management tool
C) Network switch
D) Backup software
Answer: A
Explanation: CWPPs provide threat detection, compliance, and runtime protection for cloud workloads.
Which approach helps mitigate risks of misconfigured cloud resources?
A) Automated security configuration and continuous monitoring tools
B) Manual configuration only
C) Disable security policies
D) Ignore alerts
Answer: A
Explanation: Automation reduces human error and improves compliance.
What cloud security principle ensures that data is not accessed or modified by unauthorized parties?
A) Confidentiality and Integrity
B) Availability only
C) Performance
D) Cost reduction
Answer: A
Explanation: Confidentiality protects against unauthorized access; integrity ensures data accuracy.
Which tool is commonly used for automating cloud security compliance enforcement?
A) Policy as Code (PaC)
B) Manual spreadsheets
C) Offline audits
D) Email alerts only
Answer: A
Explanation: PaC allows automated security rules embedded in code.
What is the main purpose of Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)?
A) Continuous detection and remediation of cloud misconfigurations
B) Manual firewall rules only
C) Data backup
D) Physical security
Answer: A
Explanation: CSPM tools automate risk detection and compliance.
What is the best practice for securing API keys in cloud applications?
A) Store API keys in secure vaults or secrets managers, not in code repositories
B) Hardcode keys in source code
C) Share keys publicly
D) Use default keys
Answer: A
Explanation: Secrets managers protect sensitive credentials from exposure.
What is a primary benefit of Cloud Infrastructure Automation?
A) Consistency and repeatability in deploying secure cloud resources
B) Manual configuration
C) Increased errors
D) No version control
Answer: A
Explanation: Automation enforces best practices and reduces human error.
Which process helps verify identity in cloud environments before granting access?
A) Authentication
B) Encryption
C) Backup
D) Load balancing
Answer: A
Explanation: Authentication confirms the user’s identity.
How does micro-segmentation improve cloud security?
A) Divides networks into smaller segments to contain breaches
B) Combines all networks into one
C) Removes firewalls
D) Allows unrestricted lateral movement
Answer: A
Explanation: Limits attacker movement within networks by isolating workloads.
Which of the following is NOT a valid cloud security threat?
A) Natural disasters impacting data centers
B) Misconfigured security groups
C) Overprovisioning of resources
D) Insider threats
Answer: C
Explanation: Overprovisioning is a cost issue, not a direct security threat.
Which is the MOST effective way to protect cloud workloads from malware?
A) Implement endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools with cloud integration
B) Disable antivirus
C) Ignore system updates
D) Use default passwords
Answer: A
Explanation: EDR provides real-time detection and mitigation.
What is the recommended way to handle cloud service provider outages?
A) Implement multi-region redundancy and failover strategies
B) Accept downtime without mitigation
C) No backups
D) Store data locally only
Answer: A
Explanation: Redundancy ensures service continuity during outages.
How does Cloud Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) benefit an organization?
A) Aggregates and analyzes security events for threat detection and compliance
B) Manages billing
C) Only monitors hardware health
D) Manages backups
Answer: A
Explanation: SIEM provides centralized visibility into security alerts and incidents.
Reviews
There are no reviews yet.