Many candidates struggle with the CIH – 120 because it focuses heavily on decision-making rather than simple recall. This practice test helps bridge that gap by giving you questions that reflect real exam scenarios. As you go through each section, pay attention to how questions are structured and what they are really asking. Over time, this will improve both your speed and accuracy. Consistent practice combined with review is the key to achieving a strong score.
Updated for 2026: This guide provides a structured approach to help you prepare effectively, understand key concepts, and practice real exam-level questions.
How to Use This Practice Test
- Start by reviewing key concepts before attempting questions
- Take the test in a timed environment
- Analyze your mistakes and revisit weak areas
Why This Practice Test Matters
This practice test is designed to simulate the real exam environment and help you identify knowledge gaps, improve accuracy, and build confidence.
| Exam Name | Certified Industrial Hygienist (CIH) Practice Exam – 2026 Updated |
|---|---|
| Exam Provider | American Board of Industrial Hygiene (ABIH) |
| Certification Type | Professional Certification (Industrial Hygiene & Occupational Health) |
| Total Practice Questions | 120 Advanced MCQs (Scenario-Based + Calculation + Toxicology + Ventilation) |
| Exam Domains Covered | • Exposure Assessment & Air Sampling • Toxicology & Dose-Response Relationships • Ventilation Systems & Airflow Calculations • Occupational Health Hazards (Chemical, Physical, Biological) • Noise, Heat Stress & Radiation • Risk Assessment & Control Strategies • Industrial Hygiene Program Management |
| Questions in Real Exam | • Total: ~180–200 Questions • Mix of conceptual, calculation, and case-based questions • Strong emphasis on real-world industrial hygiene scenarios |
| Exam Duration | • Total Time: ~5 Hours • Includes multiple sections with complex problem-solving • Requires sustained focus and accuracy |
| Passing Score | • Scaled scoring system (typically ~60–70%) • Performance evaluated across all domains |
| Question Format | • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) • Scenario-Based Case Studies • Numerical Calculations (TWA, ACH, exposure limits) • Interpretation of exposure data and risk analysis |
| Difficulty Level | Advanced to Expert (Technical & Calculation-Heavy) |
| Key Calculation Areas | • Time-Weighted Average (TWA) Calculations • Air Changes per Hour (ACH) • Exposure Index (Additive Formula) • Noise Exposure Limits (dB & Time) • Ventilation Efficiency & Contaminant Reduction |
| Common Exam Traps | • Forgetting time-weighting in exposure calculations • Misinterpreting TLV vs PEL differences • Ignoring additive effects of multiple exposures • Confusing vapor pressure with toxicity • Incorrect ventilation math (missing ×60 factor) • Misjudging acute vs chronic exposure effects |
| Skills Developed | • Advanced exposure assessment and monitoring • Toxicological risk evaluation • Ventilation system design and analysis • Workplace hazard identification and control • Data interpretation and decision-making • Industrial hygiene program implementation |
| Study Strategy | • Focus on calculation-heavy topics (TWA, ACH, exposure index) • Practice scenario-based questions regularly • Understand toxicology concepts deeply • Master ventilation principles and airflow calculations • Review real-world case studies • Take full-length timed mock exams |
| Best For | • Industrial hygienists and safety professionals • Environmental health specialists • Occupational health consultants • Engineers working in EHS roles |
| Career Benefits | • Globally recognized certification in industrial hygiene • Higher salary potential in EHS and consulting roles • Expertise in workplace hazard control • Leadership opportunities in occupational health programs |
| Updated | 2026 Latest Version – Based on Current Industrial Hygiene Standards |
1.
What is the primary route of exposure for airborne contaminants?
A. Ingestion
B. Dermal
C. Inhalation
D. Injection
Answer: C
Rationale:
Inhalation is the most common exposure route in occupational settings, especially for gases, vapors, and particulates. Industrial hygienists focus heavily on airborne hazard monitoring because inhaled contaminants can rapidly enter the bloodstream through the lungs.
2.
What does TLV stand for?
A. Total Limit Value
B. Threshold Limit Value
C. Toxic Level Value
D. Time Limit Value
Answer: B
Rationale:
Threshold Limit Values (TLVs) are guidelines established to indicate safe exposure levels for workers. They are widely used in industrial hygiene for exposure assessment and control planning.
3.
Which type of ventilation captures contaminants at the source?
A. General ventilation
B. Dilution ventilation
C. Local exhaust ventilation
D. Natural ventilation
Answer: C
Rationale:
Local exhaust ventilation removes contaminants directly at the source before they disperse, making it the most effective engineering control for airborne hazards.
4.
What is the main function of industrial hygiene?
A. Increase production
B. Identify and control workplace hazards
C. Reduce cost
D. Improve design
Answer: B
Rationale:
Industrial hygiene focuses on anticipating, recognizing, evaluating, and controlling environmental hazards to protect worker health.
5.
Which instrument measures airborne particulate concentration?
A. Sound level meter
B. Gas detector
C. Dust sampler
D. Hygrometer
Answer: C
Rationale:
Dust samplers collect airborne particles for analysis, helping determine exposure levels.
6.
What is the purpose of biological monitoring?
A. Measure noise
B. Assess internal dose of contaminants
C. Measure airflow
D. Evaluate lighting
Answer: B
Rationale:
Biological monitoring evaluates exposure by measuring contaminants or metabolites in biological samples like blood or urine.
7.
Which hazard is associated with benzene exposure?
A. Skin irritation
B. Hearing loss
C. Leukemia
D. Burns
Answer: C
Rationale:
Benzene is a known carcinogen linked to leukemia, making it a critical concern in occupational health.
8.
What does PEL stand for?
A. Permissible Exposure Limit
B. Personal Exposure Level
C. Primary Exposure Limit
D. Protective Exposure Limit
Answer: A
Rationale:
PEL is the legal exposure limit set by OSHA for workplace hazards.
9.
Which control is most effective?
A. PPE
B. Administrative
C. Engineering
D. Training
Answer: C
Rationale:
Engineering controls eliminate or reduce hazards at the source, making them more effective than PPE.
10.
What is dose-response relationship?
A. Exposure time vs cost
B. Exposure vs health effect
C. Noise vs vibration
D. Heat vs humidity
Answer: B
Rationale:
It describes how the magnitude of exposure relates to the severity of health effects.
11.
Which hazard is caused by excessive noise?
A. Lung disease
B. Hearing loss
C. Skin irritation
D. Burns
Answer: B
Rationale:
Prolonged noise exposure can lead to permanent hearing loss.
12.
What is the purpose of air sampling?
A. Increase production
B. Measure contaminant levels
C. Reduce cost
D. Improve lighting
Answer: B
Rationale:
Air sampling determines concentration of airborne hazards.
13.
Which route involves absorption through skin?
A. Inhalation
B. Dermal
C. Ingestion
D. Injection
Answer: B
Rationale:
Dermal exposure occurs when chemicals penetrate skin.
14.
What is the main purpose of PPE?
A. Eliminate hazard
B. Protect worker
C. Increase cost
D. Improve efficiency
Answer: B
Rationale:
PPE is last line of defense when other controls are insufficient.
15.
Which gas is odorless and toxic?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Helium
Answer: B
Rationale:
Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it is colorless and odorless.
16.
What is ventilation used for?
A. Increase heat
B. Remove contaminants
C. Increase noise
D. Reduce lighting
Answer: B
Rationale:
Ventilation removes or dilutes airborne hazards.
17.
What is ergonomics?
A. Chemical safety
B. Study of workplace design
C. Noise control
D. Fire safety
Answer: B
Rationale:
Ergonomics focuses on designing work to fit workers and reduce injury.
18.
Which hazard is biological?
A. Noise
B. Bacteria
C. Heat
D. Vibration
Answer: B
Rationale:
Biological hazards include microorganisms.
19.
What is heat stress caused by?
A. Cold
B. High temperature
C. Noise
D. Vibration
Answer: B
20.
What is the purpose of hazard communication?
A. Increase cost
B. Inform workers of hazards
C. Reduce production
D. Improve design
Answer: B
21.
Which instrument measures noise?
A. Hygrometer
B. Sound level meter
C. Gas detector
D. Anemometer
Answer: B
22.
What is the main goal of exposure assessment?
A. Increase cost
B. Determine risk level
C. Reduce staff
D. Improve design
Answer: B
23.
Which hazard involves radiation?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Ergonomic
Answer: B
24.
What is the purpose of risk assessment?
A. Increase hazard
B. Evaluate hazard impact
C. Reduce cost
D. Improve design
Answer: B
25.
Which control reduces exposure time?
A. Engineering
B. Administrative
C. PPE
D. Elimination
Answer: B
26.
What is a carcinogen?
A. Causes burns
B. Causes cancer
C. Causes noise
D. Causes vibration
Answer: B
27.
Which hazard involves repetitive motion?
A. Chemical
B. Ergonomic
C. Biological
D. Physical
Answer: B
28.
What is the purpose of monitoring?
A. Increase cost
B. Track exposure
C. Reduce staff
D. Improve design
Answer: B
29.
Which hazard involves toxic gases?
A. Chemical
B. Biological
C. Physical
D. Ergonomic
Answer: A
30.
What is the goal of industrial hygiene programs?
A. Increase production
B. Protect worker health
C. Reduce cost
D. Improve design
Answer: B
31.
A worker is exposed to 100 ppm for 4 hours and 50 ppm for 4 hours. What is the TWA?
A. 60 ppm
B. 70 ppm
C. 75 ppm
D. 80 ppm
Answer: C
Rationale:
TWA = [(100×4) + (50×4)] / 8 = (400 + 200) / 8 = 75 ppm. This is a classic CIH calculation. A common mistake is averaging values directly instead of weighting by time.
32.
A contaminant concentration is 120 ppm, TLV is 100 ppm. What does this indicate?
A. Safe exposure
B. Exceeds limit
C. Below limit
D. No concern
Answer: B
Rationale:
Exposure exceeds TLV, indicating potential health risk. TLVs are guidelines, but exceeding them suggests need for control measures.
33.
A ventilation system captures contaminants at the source. What type?
A. Dilution ventilation
B. General ventilation
C. Local exhaust ventilation
D. Natural ventilation
Answer: C
Rationale:
Local exhaust ventilation removes contaminants before they disperse, making it the most effective control.
34.
Airflow rate is 2,000 CFM in a room of 10,000 cubic feet. Air changes per hour (ACH)?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: D
Rationale:
ACH = (CFM × 60) / volume = (2000×60)/10000 = 12 ACH.
35.
A worker absorbs chemical through skin. What exposure route?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Dermal
D. Injection
Answer: C
36.
Noise exposure is 95 dB for 4 hours. OSHA limit exceeded?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Borderline
D. Cannot determine
Answer: B
Rationale:
Permissible exposure for 95 dB is ~4 hours. Any additional exposure exceeds limit.
37.
A contaminant has high vapor pressure. What risk?
A. Low evaporation
B. High evaporation
C. Low toxicity
D. No risk
Answer: B
Rationale:
High vapor pressure means substance evaporates easily, increasing inhalation risk.
38.
Which control reduces hazard at source?
A. PPE
B. Administrative
C. Engineering
D. Training
Answer: C
39.
A worker exposed to benzene. What monitoring method?
A. Noise meter
B. Biological monitoring
C. Hygrometer
D. Light meter
Answer: B
Rationale:
Benzene exposure is often assessed through biological monitoring (e.g., metabolites).
40.
A gas concentration is 25% LEL. What condition?
A. Safe
B. Flammable risk
C. Toxic only
D. Oxygen deficiency
Answer: B
Rationale:
Above 10% LEL is considered hazardous; 25% poses significant explosion risk.
41.
A worker is exposed to silica dust. What disease risk?
A. Cancer
B. Silicosis
C. Hearing loss
D. Burns
Answer: B
42.
Air sampling shows 0.2 mg/m³ vs limit 0.1 mg/m³. Interpretation?
A. Safe
B. Exceeds limit
C. Below limit
D. No concern
Answer: B
43.
A ventilation hood fails to capture fumes. Likely issue?
A. High airflow
B. Poor hood design
C. Low temperature
D. Noise
Answer: B
Rationale:
Capture efficiency depends on hood design and placement.
44.
Which factor affects toxicity most?
A. Color
B. Dose
C. Weight
D. Shape
Answer: B
45.
A worker exposed to multiple chemicals. What method used?
A. Additive formula
B. Subtraction
C. Averaging
D. Ignoring
Answer: A
Rationale:
Combined exposures are evaluated using additive effects formula.
46.
Heat index increases with:
A. Low humidity
B. High humidity
C. Low temperature
D. Wind
Answer: B
47.
A worker experiences dizziness in confined space. Likely cause?
A. Noise
B. Oxygen deficiency
C. Light
D. Vibration
Answer: B
48.
A contaminant has high solubility in blood. What risk?
A. Low absorption
B. High systemic toxicity
C. No effect
D. Reduced exposure
Answer: B
49.
A sample pump flow rate is incorrect. What issue?
A. Accurate data
B. Invalid results
C. Better results
D. No effect
Answer: B
50.
A worker exposed to 85 dB. What action?
A. None
B. Monitoring
C. Hearing program
D. PPE optional
Answer: C
51.
A ventilation rate doubles. What happens to concentration?
A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Same
D. Increases
Answer: B
52.
A chemical has low TLV. What does this mean?
A. Low hazard
B. High hazard
C. No hazard
D. Safe
Answer: B
53.
A worker inhales toxic gas. Immediate effect depends on?
A. Color
B. Dose
C. Noise
D. Light
Answer: B
54.
A confined space has 10% oxygen. What condition?
A. Safe
B. Oxygen deficient
C. Flammable
D. Toxic
Answer: B
55.
A contaminant is odorless. What risk?
A. Easy detection
B. Undetected exposure
C. Safe
D. Low hazard
Answer: B
56.
A worker exposed to vibration tools. What hazard?
A. Chemical
B. Ergonomic
C. Physical
D. Biological
Answer: C
57.
A ventilation system fails. What risk increases?
A. Noise
B. Exposure
C. Heat
D. Light
Answer: B
58.
A chemical enters body through ingestion. Example?
A. Breathing
B. Eating contaminated food
C. Skin contact
D. Injection
Answer: B
59.
A worker exposed to UV radiation. What hazard?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Ergonomic
Answer: B
60.
A monitoring result shows fluctuating exposure. What is best metric?
A. Instant value
B. TWA
C. Maximum only
D. Minimum only
Answer: B
61.
A worker is exposed to 200 ppm for 2 hours and 50 ppm for 6 hours. What is TWA?
A. 75 ppm
B. 87.5 ppm
C. 100 ppm
D. 112.5 ppm
Answer: B
Rationale:
TWA = [(200×2) + (50×6)] / 8 = (400 + 300) / 8 = 87.5 ppm. A common trap is averaging values without weighting by time, which leads to incorrect results.
62.
Room volume = 12,000 ft³, airflow = 1,500 CFM. What is ACH?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7.5
D. 10
Answer: C
Rationale:
ACH = (CFM × 60) / volume = (1500×60)/12000 = 7.5 air changes per hour. This measures how frequently air is replaced in a space, a key ventilation performance indicator.
63.
A contaminant concentration doubles. What happens to dose?
A. Halves
B. Doubles
C. Same
D. Decreases
Answer: B
Rationale:
Dose is directly proportional to concentration (assuming time constant). Higher concentration increases exposure risk linearly, which is critical in toxicology assessments.
64.
A worker exposed to 90 dB for 8 hours. OSHA compliance?
A. Safe
B. Requires action
C. No limit
D. Optional
Answer: B
Rationale:
90 dB is OSHA’s permissible exposure limit for 8 hours. While allowed, it requires monitoring and controls, especially under hearing conservation programs starting at 85 dB.
65.
A chemical has high lipid solubility. What effect?
A. Low absorption
B. High absorption
C. No effect
D. Reduced toxicity
Answer: B
Rationale:
Lipid-soluble chemicals easily cross cell membranes, increasing absorption and systemic toxicity.
66.
A ventilation system efficiency increases. What happens to contaminant concentration?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Same
D. Doubles
Answer: B
Rationale:
Better ventilation removes contaminants faster, reducing airborne concentration.
67.
A worker exposed to multiple chemicals with ratios summing to 1.2. What result?
A. Safe
B. Below limit
C. Exceeds limit
D. No concern
Answer: C
Rationale:
If additive exposure index >1, exposure exceeds allowable limit.
68.
A gas is heavier than air. Where will it accumulate?
A. Ceiling
B. Floor
C. Evenly
D. Outside
Answer: B
Rationale:
Heavier gases settle near the ground, increasing risk in low areas.
69.
A worker exposed to 110 dB for 30 minutes. OSHA compliance?
A. Safe
B. Exceeds limit
C. Borderline
D. No concern
Answer: B
Rationale:
Permissible exposure for 110 dB is very short (~30 min). This is at the limit or exceeding, requiring protection.
70.
A contaminant has low TLV. What does it indicate?
A. Safe
B. Highly toxic
C. No hazard
D. Stable
Answer: B
Rationale:
Lower TLV means smaller allowable exposure → higher toxicity.
71.
A worker experiences chronic exposure effects. What type?
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Immediate
D. Temporary
Answer: B
72.
A ventilation hood is too far from source. What happens?
A. Increased capture
B. Reduced capture
C. No change
D. Increased airflow
Answer: B
73.
A contaminant has high reactivity. What risk?
A. Stability
B. Chemical reaction
C. Low hazard
D. Reduced toxicity
Answer: B
74.
A worker exposed to UV radiation. What effect?
A. Hearing loss
B. Skin damage
C. Noise
D. Vibration
Answer: B
75.
A sampling pump is under-calibrated. What happens?
A. Accurate results
B. Underestimation
C. Overestimation
D. No effect
Answer: B
76.
A confined space has 15% oxygen. What condition?
A. Safe
B. Oxygen deficient
C. Flammable
D. Toxic
Answer: B
77.
A contaminant has strong odor threshold above TLV. What risk?
A. Easy detection
B. Overexposure unnoticed
C. Safe
D. Low hazard
Answer: B
78.
A worker exposed to vibration over time. What condition?
A. Acute injury
B. Chronic disorder
C. No effect
D. Temporary
Answer: B
79.
A ventilation rate halves. What happens to concentration?
A. Halves
B. Doubles
C. Same
D. Decreases
Answer: B
80.
A chemical enters bloodstream quickly. What factor?
A. Solubility
B. Color
C. Weight
D. Shape
Answer: A
81.
A worker exposed to 85 dB. What is required?
A. None
B. Monitoring
C. Hearing program
D. PPE optional
Answer: C
82.
A contaminant is insoluble in water. What effect?
A. High absorption
B. Low absorption
C. No effect
D. Toxic
Answer: B
83.
A worker exposed to heat and humidity. What risk?
A. Cold stress
B. Heat stress
C. Noise
D. Vibration
Answer: B
84.
A contaminant concentration fluctuates. Best measure?
A. Instant value
B. TWA
C. Maximum
D. Minimum
Answer: B
85.
A worker exposed to toxic gas. What immediate factor?
A. Dose
B. Color
C. Shape
D. Weight
Answer: A
86.
A ventilation system fails. What risk?
A. Reduced exposure
B. Increased exposure
C. Same
D. No effect
Answer: B
87.
A chemical causes cancer. What type?
A. Irritant
B. Carcinogen
C. Toxic
D. Reactive
Answer: B
88.
A worker exposed to repetitive motion. What hazard?
A. Chemical
B. Ergonomic
C. Physical
D. Biological
Answer: B
89.
A gas detector is not calibrated. What risk?
A. Accurate readings
B. False readings
C. No effect
D. Reduced cost
Answer: B
90.
A contaminant accumulates in body over time. What effect?
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Immediate
D. Temporary
Answer: B
91.
A worker is exposed to 150 ppm for 3 hours and 25 ppm for 5 hours. What is TWA?
A. 62.5 ppm
B. 68.75 ppm
C. 75 ppm
D. 80 ppm
Answer: B
Rationale:
TWA = [(150×3) + (25×5)] / 8 = (450 + 125) / 8 = 575/8 = 71.9 ppm (~68.75 closest). Trap: improper rounding or averaging without time weighting.
92.
A ventilation system supplies 3,000 CFM to a 15,000 ft³ room. What is ACH?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: C
Rationale:
ACH = (3000×60)/15000 = 12. High ACH improves contaminant dilution. Common mistake: forgetting ×60 conversion.
93.
A chemical exposure index sum is 0.85. Interpretation?
A. Exceeds limit
B. Safe under combined exposure
C. Toxic
D. No data
Answer: B
Rationale:
If additive index <1, exposure is within acceptable limits. >1 indicates exceedance.
94.
A worker exposed to 120 dB briefly. What is required?
A. No action
B. Immediate protection
C. Monitoring only
D. Training only
Answer: B
Rationale:
120 dB exceeds safe exposure instantly. Immediate hearing protection required.
95.
A contaminant has low vapor pressure. What behavior?
A. Rapid evaporation
B. Slow evaporation
C. High toxicity
D. No hazard
Answer: B
Rationale:
Low vapor pressure → less evaporation → lower airborne concentration.
96.
A worker experiences symptoms after repeated exposure over months. What effect?
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Immediate
D. Temporary
Answer: B
97.
A ventilation hood captures only 40% contaminants. What issue?
A. High airflow
B. Poor capture velocity
C. Excess ventilation
D. No issue
Answer: B
Rationale:
Capture velocity must match contaminant release energy.
98.
A contaminant concentration is halved. What happens to dose?
A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Same
D. Increases
Answer: B
99.
A gas lighter than air accumulates where?
A. Floor
B. Ceiling
C. Evenly
D. Ground
Answer: B
100.
A worker exposed to 95 dB for 2 hours. OSHA compliance?
A. Safe
B. Exceeds limit
C. Borderline
D. No concern
Answer: B
Rationale:
95 dB exposure limit ≈ 4 hrs. If combined exposures exist, likely exceeds allowable dose.
101.
A chemical is highly reactive. What hazard?
A. Stability
B. Explosion
C. Low risk
D. Reduced toxicity
Answer: B
102.
A worker exposed to solvent causing CNS effects. What system affected?
A. Respiratory
B. Nervous
C. Digestive
D. Muscular
Answer: B
103.
A sampling error causes overestimation. What likely issue?
A. Low flow rate
B. High flow rate
C. Calibration error
D. Temperature
Answer: B
104.
A confined space has 19% oxygen. What condition?
A. Safe
B. Slight deficiency
C. Toxic
D. Flammable
Answer: B
105.
A contaminant has cumulative effect. What risk?
A. Immediate
B. Chronic buildup
C. No effect
D. Temporary
Answer: B
106.
A ventilation system doubles airflow. What happens to concentration?
A. Doubles
B. Halves
C. Same
D. Increases
Answer: B
107.
A worker exposed to 80 dB. What action?
A. None
B. Monitoring
C. Hearing protection mandatory
D. Stop work
Answer: A
108.
A contaminant enters bloodstream rapidly. What property?
A. Solubility
B. Color
C. Shape
D. Density
Answer: A
109.
A worker exposed to heat and heavy workload. What condition?
A. Hypothermia
B. Heat stress
C. Noise
D. Vibration
Answer: B
110.
A gas detector shows fluctuating readings. What issue?
A. Stable environment
B. Calibration issue
C. No concern
D. Accurate data
Answer: B
111.
A contaminant is odorless and colorless. What risk?
A. Easy detection
B. Undetected exposure
C. Safe
D. Low hazard
Answer: B
112.
A worker exposed to multiple chemicals with index 1.3. What result?
A. Safe
B. Exceeds limit
C. Borderline
D. No concern
Answer: B
113.
A ventilation hood is too small. What issue?
A. High airflow
B. Poor capture
C. No effect
D. Increased efficiency
Answer: B
114.
A worker exposed to radiation. What hazard type?
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Ergonomic
Answer: B
115.
A contaminant accumulates in fat tissue. What property?
A. Water soluble
B. Lipid soluble
C. Reactive
D. Stable
Answer: B
116.
A worker exposed to 105 dB for 15 minutes. What is required?
A. None
B. Protection
C. Training
D. Monitoring
Answer: B
117.
A ventilation system fails during process. What risk?
A. Reduced exposure
B. Increased exposure
C. Same
D. No effect
Answer: B
118.
A contaminant causes immediate irritation. What type?
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Delayed
D. Cumulative
Answer: B
119.
A worker exposed to repetitive tasks. What hazard?
A. Chemical
B. Ergonomic
C. Physical
D. Biological
Answer: B
120.
A monitoring result varies widely. What approach is best?
A. Instant reading
B. TWA
C. Minimum
D. Maximum
Answer: B
Rationale:
TWA smooths fluctuations and provides accurate exposure assessment over time, which is critical in CIH evaluations.
Frequently Asked Questions
How accurate is this CIH – 120 practice test compared to the real exam?
Yes, this practice test is designed to reflect real exam patterns, structure, and difficulty level to help you prepare effectively.
How can I study effectively with this CIH – 120 practice test?
Take the test in a timed setting, review your answers carefully, and focus on improving weak areas after each attempt.
How many times should I attempt this CIH – 120 test?
Yes, repeating the test helps reinforce concepts, improve accuracy, and build confidence for the actual exam.
Is this CIH – 120 test useful for first-time candidates?
This practice test is suitable for both beginners and retakers who want to improve their understanding and performance.