If you’re serious about passing the Certified Midwives, practicing with high-quality questions is essential. This test offers a structured way to evaluate your current level and identify areas that need improvement. Each question is designed to reflect real exam scenarios, helping you develop the skills needed to succeed. Use this test regularly as part of your study plan to gradually improve your performance.
Updated for 2026: This guide provides a structured approach to help you prepare effectively, understand key concepts, and practice real exam-level questions.
How to Use This Practice Test
- Start by reviewing key concepts before attempting questions
- Take the test in a timed environment
- Analyze your mistakes and revisit weak areas
Why This Practice Test Matters
This practice test is designed to simulate the real exam environment and help you identify knowledge gaps, improve accuracy, and build confidence.
| Exam Name | Certified Midwife Practice Exam (NARM & AMCB) |
|---|---|
| Exam Providers | North American Registry of Midwives (NARM) & American Midwifery Certification Board (AMCB) |
| Exam Type | Professional Certification Exam (Midwifery & Maternal-Newborn Care) |
| Total Practice Questions | 120+ Practice Questions (MCQs + Clinical Scenarios + Emergency Care) – Updated for 2026 |
| Coverage Topics | • Prenatal Care & Assessment (Gestational Age, Screening, Risk Factors) • Maternal Physiology & Hormonal Changes • Labor & Delivery (Stages of Labor, Fetal Monitoring, Positions) • Intrapartum Complications (Dystocia, Fetal Distress, Cord Prolapse) • Postpartum Care (Lochia, Uterine Involution, Mental Health) • Newborn Care (Apgar, Reflexes, Feeding, Thermoregulation) • Pharmacology (Oxytocin, Magnesium Sulfate, Tocolytics, Vaccines) • Obstetric Emergencies (Hemorrhage, Eclampsia, Neonatal Resuscitation) • Infection Control & Screening (TORCH, GBS, Chorioamnionitis) • Ethics, Legal Practice & Patient-Centered Care |
| Question Format | • Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) • Case-Based Clinical Scenarios • Emergency & Decision-Making Questions • Applied Pharmacology and Newborn Care Questions |
| Difficulty Level | Intermediate to Advanced (Aligned with Real NARM & AMCB Certification Exams) |
| Skills Developed | • Clinical decision-making during labor and delivery • Maternal and fetal assessment skills • Identification and management of obstetric complications • Newborn evaluation and early care techniques • Safe medication use in maternal care • Emergency response and risk management • Ethical, legal, and patient-centered practice |
| Study Tips | • Focus on recognizing complications (preeclampsia, hemorrhage, fetal distress) • Practice fetal heart rate interpretation patterns • Review medication uses and contraindications • Understand stages of labor and clinical interventions • Study newborn assessment (Apgar, reflexes, vitals) • Strengthen clinical reasoning with case-based scenarios |
| Best For | Midwifery students, nurse-midwives, and professionals preparing for NARM and AMCB certification exams |
| Updated | 2026 Latest Version |
1. Prenatal Care
What is the most accurate method for estimating gestational age?
A. Fundal height
B. Last menstrual period (LMP)
C. First-trimester ultrasound
D. Quickening
Answer: C
Rationale: First-trimester ultrasound provides the most precise dating due to minimal fetal variation early in pregnancy.
2. Prenatal Assessment
A normal fetal heart rate range is:
A. 90–110 bpm
B. 110–160 bpm
C. 160–190 bpm
D. 80–100 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal baseline fetal heart rate is 110–160 bpm; deviations may indicate distress.
3. Physiology
Which hormone maintains pregnancy in early gestation?
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin
Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone supports the uterine lining and prevents contractions.
4. Nutrition
In pregnancy, increased folic acid intake helps prevent:
A. Anemia
B. Neural tube defects
C. Hypertension
D. Diabetes
Answer: B
Rationale: Folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects like spina bifida.
5. Screening
The glucose challenge test screens for:
A. Preeclampsia
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Anemia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It identifies abnormal glucose metabolism during pregnancy.
6. Intrapartum Care
The first stage of labor ends when:
A. Contractions begin
B. Cervix is fully dilated
C. Baby is delivered
D. Placenta is delivered
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 1 ends at 10 cm dilation.
7. Labor Monitoring
Late decelerations indicate:
A. Head compression
B. Cord compression
C. Uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Normal pattern
Answer: C
Rationale: Late decels are associated with fetal hypoxia.
8. Delivery
The cardinal movement after engagement is:
A. Extension
B. Internal rotation
C. Descent
D. Expulsion
Answer: C
Rationale: Descent follows engagement as the fetus moves through the pelvis.
9. Pain Management
Non-pharmacologic pain relief includes:
A. Epidural
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Breathing techniques
D. Opioids
Answer: C
Rationale: Breathing, positioning, and massage are common non-drug methods.
10. Postpartum
Normal postpartum bleeding is called:
A. Lochia
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discharge
D. Effusion
Answer: A
Rationale: Lochia is normal uterine discharge after birth.
11. Newborn Care
Apgar score assesses:
A. Gestational age
B. Newborn adaptation
C. Birth weight
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It evaluates heart rate, respiration, tone, reflexes, and color.
12. Pharmacology
Oxytocin is used to:
A. Stop labor
B. Induce or augment labor
C. Reduce pain
D. Prevent infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.
13. Complications
Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. Low BP
B. High BP and proteinuria
C. Fever
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: It involves hypertension and organ dysfunction.
14. Emergency
First step in managing postpartum hemorrhage:
A. Surgery
B. Uterine massage
C. Antibiotics
D. IV fluids only
Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine massage helps contract the uterus and reduce bleeding.
15. Newborn
Normal newborn respiratory rate:
A. 10–20
B. 30–60
C. 60–90
D. 90–120
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborns typically breathe 30–60 times per minute.
16. Breastfeeding
Colostrum is rich in:
A. Fat
B. Antibodies
C. Sugar
D. Water
Answer: B
Rationale: It provides immunological protection.
17. Infection
Group B strep screening occurs at:
A. 10 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. 35–37 weeks
D. Postpartum
Answer: C
Rationale: Screening late in pregnancy guides intrapartum antibiotics.
18. Labor
Active labor typically begins at:
A. 2 cm
B. 4–6 cm dilation
C. 8 cm
D. 10 cm
Answer: B
Rationale: Active labor involves faster dilation.
19. Fetal Position
LOA position means:
A. Left occiput anterior
B. Right occiput posterior
C. Breech
D. Transverse
Answer: A
Rationale: It is the most favorable fetal position.
20. Ethics
Informed consent requires:
A. Physician approval
B. Patient understanding and agreement
C. Written signature only
D. Family consent
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients must understand risks, benefits, and alternatives.
21. Postpartum
Uterine involution refers to:
A. Growth
B. Shrinking of uterus
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: The uterus returns to pre-pregnancy size.
22. Newborn
Vernix caseosa functions to:
A. Increase temperature
B. Protect skin
C. Aid breathing
D. Prevent crying
Answer: B
Rationale: It protects and moisturizes newborn skin.
23. Complications
Placenta previa presents with:
A. Painful bleeding
B. Painless bleeding
C. No bleeding
D. Fever
Answer: B
Rationale: It typically causes painless vaginal bleeding.
24. Labor
Second stage of labor ends with:
A. Full dilation
B. Birth of baby
C. Placenta delivery
D. Contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Stage 2 is from full dilation to delivery.
25. Pharmacology
Magnesium sulfate is used for:
A. Pain relief
B. Seizure prevention
C. Inducing labor
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It prevents eclamptic seizures.
26. Newborn
Normal newborn weight loss after birth:
A. 1–2%
B. 5–10%
C. 15–20%
D. 25%
Answer: B
Rationale: Up to 10% loss is normal in first days.
27. Screening
Rh incompatibility is prevented with:
A. Iron
B. Rh immunoglobulin
C. Insulin
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevents maternal antibody formation.
28. Labor Monitoring
Variable decelerations indicate:
A. Placental insufficiency
B. Cord compression
C. Normal labor
D. Maternal hypotension
Answer: B
Rationale: Caused by umbilical cord compression.
29. Postpartum
Baby blues typically occur:
A. Immediately
B. 2–5 days postpartum
C. 2 months later
D. During pregnancy
Answer: B
Rationale: Common emotional changes occur early postpartum.
30. Professional Practice
Midwives must prioritize:
A. Hospital policy
B. Patient-centered care
C. Speed
D. Cost
Answer: B
Rationale: Care should focus on patient safety, autonomy, and well-being.
31. Prenatal Care
A pregnant client at 10 weeks presents with severe nausea and weight loss. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Normal morning sickness
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Preeclampsia
D. GERD
Answer: B
Rationale: Severe vomiting with weight loss and dehydration suggests hyperemesis gravidarum.
32. Physiology
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is primarily responsible for:
A. Uterine contractions
B. Maintaining corpus luteum
C. Milk production
D. Cervical dilation
Answer: B
Rationale: hCG sustains progesterone production early in pregnancy.
33. Prenatal Assessment
Fundal height at 20 weeks is approximately:
A. At pubic symphysis
B. At umbilicus
C. Above ribs
D. Below pelvis
Answer: B
Rationale: Fundal height reaches the umbilicus at ~20 weeks.
34. Screening
Which test confirms rupture of membranes?
A. NST
B. Nitrazine test
C. CBC
D. Ultrasound
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitrazine paper detects alkaline amniotic fluid.
35. Intrapartum Care
A prolonged latent phase is most commonly caused by:
A. Strong contractions
B. Cephalopelvic disproportion
C. Ineffective uterine contractions
D. Fetal distress
Answer: C
Rationale: Weak or uncoordinated contractions delay progress.
36. Labor Monitoring
Early decelerations are caused by:
A. Hypoxia
B. Head compression
C. Cord compression
D. Placental failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Benign pattern due to fetal head pressure.
37. Delivery
Shoulder dystocia is best managed initially by:
A. Immediate cesarean
B. McRoberts maneuver
C. Fundal pressure
D. Forceps
Answer: B
Rationale: McRoberts position widens the pelvis and is first-line.
38. Pain Management
Epidural anesthesia primarily blocks:
A. Motor nerves only
B. Sensory nerves
C. Hormones
D. Circulation
Answer: B
Rationale: Epidurals reduce pain by blocking sensory transmission.
39. Postpartum
A boggy uterus indicates:
A. Normal involution
B. Uterine atony
C. Infection
D. Dehydration
Answer: B
Rationale: Atony is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
40. Newborn Care
A newborn with a heart rate below 100 bpm requires:
A. Observation
B. Immediate resuscitation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: HR <100 bpm indicates need for intervention.
41. Breastfeeding
Correct latch prevents:
A. Milk production
B. Nipple trauma
C. Infant weight gain
D. Hormone release
Answer: B
Rationale: Poor latch leads to pain and ineffective feeding.
42. Infection
TORCH infections include all EXCEPT:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. HIV
D. Herpes
Answer: C
Rationale: TORCH excludes HIV (separate category).
43. Complications
Abruptio placentae presents with:
A. Painless bleeding
B. Painful bleeding
C. No bleeding
D. Fever
Answer: B
Rationale: It involves painful bleeding and uterine tenderness.
44. Emergency
Eclampsia is characterized by:
A. Hypertension only
B. Seizures in pregnancy
C. Bleeding
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It is severe preeclampsia with seizures.
45. Newborn
Meconium-stained fluid indicates risk of:
A. Infection
B. Aspiration
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Jaundice
Answer: B
Rationale: Meconium aspiration can impair breathing.
46. Pharmacology
Terbutaline is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Stop preterm contractions
C. Reduce bleeding
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It relaxes uterine smooth muscle.
47. Labor
Transition phase occurs at:
A. 0–2 cm
B. 3–4 cm
C. 8–10 cm
D. After delivery
Answer: C
Rationale: Most intense phase before full dilation.
48. Fetal Position
Occiput posterior position often leads to:
A. Short labor
B. Back labor pain
C. Breech
D. No complications
Answer: B
Rationale: OP position causes increased back discomfort.
49. Ethics
Autonomy means:
A. Provider decision-making
B. Patient self-determination
C. Legal compliance
D. Hospital rules
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients have the right to make informed choices.
50. Postpartum
Endometritis presents with:
A. Fever and foul discharge
B. Normal bleeding
C. No symptoms
D. Low BP
Answer: A
Rationale: Infection signs include fever and odor.
51. Newborn
Normal newborn temperature:
A. 34°C
B. 36.5–37.5°C
C. 38.5°C
D. 39°C
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal thermoregulation range.
52. Screening
Biophysical profile assesses:
A. Maternal health
B. Fetal well-being
C. Placenta only
D. Labor progress
Answer: B
Rationale: Includes movement, tone, breathing, fluid.
53. Labor
Uterine tachysystole is defined as:
A. <3 contractions/10 min
B. >5 contractions/10 min
C. No contractions
D. Weak contractions
Answer: B
Rationale: Excessive contractions may compromise fetal oxygenation.
54. Complications
Gestational hypertension occurs after:
A. 10 weeks
B. 20 weeks
C. Delivery
D. Postpartum
Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnosed after mid-pregnancy without proteinuria.
55. Pharmacology
Rho(D) immune globulin is given to:
A. Rh-positive mothers
B. Rh-negative mothers
C. All mothers
D. Newborns
Answer: B
Rationale: Prevents sensitization in Rh-negative mothers.
56. Newborn
Jaundice in newborns is due to:
A. Low glucose
B. High bilirubin
C. Infection
D. Low oxygen
Answer: B
Rationale: Immature liver causes bilirubin buildup.
57. Postpartum
Normal lochia progression is:
A. Alba → rubra → serosa
B. Rubra → serosa → alba
C. Serosa → alba → rubra
D. No pattern
Answer: B
Rationale: Color changes reflect healing stages.
58. Infection
Chorioamnionitis is infection of:
A. Uterine muscle
B. Fetal membranes
C. Placenta only
D. Cervix
Answer: B
Rationale: Infection of amniotic sac and membranes.
59. Labor
Station 0 indicates:
A. Head above pelvis
B. Head at ischial spines
C. Head crowning
D. Delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: Engagement occurs at ischial spines.
60. Professional Practice
Scope of practice ensures:
A. Unlimited actions
B. Safe, regulated care
C. Faster delivery
D. Lower cost
Answer: B
Rationale: Defines safe boundaries for professional care.
61. Prenatal Care
A client at 28 weeks has a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal pregnancy change
B. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. Preeclampsia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Hemoglobin <11 g/dL in pregnancy indicates anemia, most commonly iron deficiency.
62. Physiology
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk ejection (let-down reflex)?
A. Prolactin
B. Oxytocin
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin triggers milk ejection, while prolactin stimulates milk production.
63. Prenatal Assessment
Quickening is typically felt at:
A. 8 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 16–20 weeks
D. 28 weeks
Answer: C
Rationale: First fetal movements are usually felt between 16–20 weeks.
64. Screening
Which condition is screened using maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP)?
A. Diabetes
B. Neural tube defects
C. Hypertension
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated AFP suggests neural tube defects like spina bifida.
65. Intrapartum Care
A prolonged second stage of labor increases risk of:
A. Rapid delivery
B. Maternal exhaustion
C. Decreased bleeding
D. Short labor
Answer: B
Rationale: Extended pushing leads to fatigue and complications.
66. Labor Monitoring
Sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern indicates:
A. Normal tracing
B. Severe fetal anemia or hypoxia
C. Head compression
D. Cord compression
Answer: B
Rationale: A sinusoidal pattern is a serious, ominous sign.
67. Delivery
The maneuver used to deliver the posterior shoulder is:
A. McRoberts
B. Gentle downward traction
C. Fundal pressure
D. Cesarean
Answer: B
Rationale: After anterior shoulder delivery, gentle traction delivers the posterior shoulder.
68. Pain Management
Nitrous oxide provides:
A. Complete anesthesia
B. Mild analgesia and anxiolysis
C. Uterine relaxation
D. Sedation only
Answer: B
Rationale: It reduces anxiety and pain perception without full anesthesia.
69. Postpartum
Normal uterine position immediately after birth is:
A. Above umbilicus
B. At umbilicus
C. Below pelvis
D. Lateral
Answer: B
Rationale: Fundus is typically at or near the umbilicus right after delivery.
70. Newborn Care
A newborn with central cyanosis requires:
A. Routine care
B. Immediate evaluation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: Central cyanosis suggests inadequate oxygenation.
71. Breastfeeding
Prolactin levels are highest during:
A. Pregnancy only
B. Nighttime feeding
C. Delivery
D. Weaning
Answer: B
Rationale: Night feeds stimulate higher prolactin secretion.
72. Infection
Which infection is associated with “blueberry muffin” rash in newborns?
A. Rubella
B. HIV
C. Hepatitis
D. Syphilis
Answer: A
Rationale: Congenital rubella causes this characteristic rash.
73. Complications
Amniotic fluid embolism presents with:
A. Mild symptoms
B. Sudden respiratory distress and collapse
C. Fever
D. Bleeding only
Answer: B
Rationale: It is a rare but life-threatening emergency.
74. Emergency
Initial management of neonatal apnea includes:
A. Observation
B. Stimulation
C. Feeding
D. Bathing
Answer: B
Rationale: Gentle stimulation often initiates breathing.
75. Newborn
The Moro reflex disappears by:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Answer: C
Rationale: Primitive reflexes fade as the nervous system matures.
76. Pharmacology
Indomethacin is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Delay preterm labor
C. Increase contractions
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It inhibits prostaglandins to suppress contractions.
77. Labor
Effacement refers to:
A. Cervical dilation
B. Cervical thinning
C. Fetal descent
D. Placental separation
Answer: B
Rationale: Effacement is the thinning of the cervix.
78. Fetal Position
Breech presentation increases risk of:
A. Easy delivery
B. Cord prolapse
C. Short labor
D. No complications
Answer: B
Rationale: Cord prolapse is more likely with malpresentation.
79. Ethics
Beneficence means:
A. Do no harm
B. Promote patient well-being
C. Respect autonomy
D. Follow law
Answer: B
Rationale: Beneficence focuses on acting in the patient’s best interest.
80. Postpartum
Subinvolution of uterus may cause:
A. Reduced bleeding
B. Prolonged bleeding
C. Fever only
D. Pain only
Answer: B
Rationale: Delayed uterine shrinkage leads to continued bleeding.
81. Newborn
Normal newborn blood glucose is approximately:
A. <20 mg/dL
B. 40–60 mg/dL
C. 80–100 mg/dL
D. >120 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Newborn glucose is lower than adults but should stay above ~40.
82. Screening
Non-stress test (NST) evaluates:
A. Maternal health
B. Fetal heart rate response
C. Placental size
D. Uterine size
Answer: B
Rationale: NST assesses fetal well-being via heart rate accelerations.
83. Labor
True labor contractions are:
A. Irregular and painless
B. Regular and progressive
C. Decreasing
D. Only at night
Answer: B
Rationale: True labor shows increasing intensity and frequency.
84. Complications
Oligohydramnios refers to:
A. Excess fluid
B. Low amniotic fluid
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: Low fluid can affect fetal development.
85. Pharmacology
Which drug is used to control postpartum hemorrhage?
A. Insulin
B. Oxytocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Oxytocin promotes uterine contraction.
86. Newborn
Lanugo is:
A. Skin rash
B. Fine body hair
C. Infection
D. Fat layer
Answer: B
Rationale: Temporary hair covering newborn skin.
87. Postpartum
Afterpains are caused by:
A. Infection
B. Uterine contractions
C. Hormones only
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: Uterine contractions help involution.
88. Infection
Which infection can cause congenital deafness?
A. Rubella
B. Influenza
C. Malaria
D. Tuberculosis
Answer: A
Rationale: Rubella is a known cause of hearing loss.
89. Labor
Crowning occurs when:
A. Head enters pelvis
B. Head remains visible
C. Baby is delivered
D. Placenta delivered
Answer: B
Rationale: The head stays visible without retracting.
90. Professional Practice
Continuing education ensures:
A. Reduced workload
B. Updated clinical knowledge
C. Higher cost
D. Faster delivery
Answer: B
Rationale: Ongoing learning maintains competency and safety.
91. Prenatal Care
A pregnant client reports unilateral leg swelling and pain. What is the priority concern?
A. Normal edema
B. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
C. Dehydration
D. Muscle strain
Answer: B
Rationale: Unilateral swelling and pain suggest DVT, a serious pregnancy complication.
92. Physiology
Which cardiovascular change occurs during pregnancy?
A. Decreased blood volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Reduced circulation
Answer: B
Rationale: Cardiac output increases to support fetal needs.
93. Prenatal Assessment
Leopold maneuvers are used to determine:
A. Maternal BP
B. Fetal position and presentation
C. Placental location
D. Cervical dilation
Answer: B
Rationale: They assess fetal lie, presentation, and position.
94. Screening
Which test is used to assess fetal lung maturity?
A. NST
B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
C. CBC
D. Ultrasound
Answer: B
Rationale: L/S ratio indicates surfactant production.
95. Intrapartum Care
A sudden drop in fetal heart rate with cord prolapse requires:
A. Observation
B. Immediate intervention
C. Feeding
D. Delayed care
Answer: B
Rationale: Cord prolapse is an emergency requiring rapid action.
96. Labor Monitoring
Category III fetal heart tracing indicates:
A. Normal
B. Indeterminate
C. Abnormal requiring intervention
D. Early labor
Answer: C
Rationale: Category III suggests fetal distress.
97. Delivery
Episiotomy is performed to:
A. Reduce contractions
B. Enlarge vaginal opening
C. Stop bleeding
D. Deliver placenta
Answer: B
Rationale: It facilitates delivery in specific cases.
98. Pain Management
Contraindication to epidural includes:
A. Hypertension
B. Coagulopathy
C. Labor pain
D. Anxiety
Answer: B
Rationale: Bleeding disorders increase risk of complications.
99. Postpartum
Lochia serosa appears:
A. Bright red
B. Pink/brown
C. White
D. Green
Answer: B
Rationale: It follows lochia rubra in normal progression.
100. Newborn Care
Apgar score is assessed at:
A. Birth only
B. 1 and 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes only
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Standard timing evaluates adaptation.
101. Breastfeeding
Engorgement is best relieved by:
A. Avoid feeding
B. Frequent feeding
C. Ice only
D. Medication only
Answer: B
Rationale: Regular feeding reduces breast fullness.
102. Infection
Which infection requires isolation precautions in newborns?
A. Rubella
B. Common cold
C. Flu
D. Mild fever
Answer: A
Rationale: Congenital infections require strict precautions.
103. Complications
Polyhydramnios is associated with:
A. Low fluid
B. Excess amniotic fluid
C. Infection
D. Bleeding
Answer: B
Rationale: It indicates excessive fluid volume.
104. Emergency
First-line treatment for neonatal hypoglycemia:
A. Insulin
B. Feeding or glucose
C. Oxygen
D. Antibiotics
Answer: B
Rationale: Feeding or glucose stabilizes levels.
105. Newborn
Caput succedaneum is:
A. Skull fracture
B. Scalp swelling
C. Brain injury
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It is benign swelling from pressure during birth.
106. Pharmacology
Methylergometrine is used to:
A. Induce labor
B. Control postpartum hemorrhage
C. Reduce pain
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It causes uterine contraction to reduce bleeding.
107. Labor
Fetal station +3 indicates:
A. High in pelvis
B. At ischial spines
C. Near delivery
D. Not engaged
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive stations indicate descent toward delivery.
108. Fetal Position
Transverse lie requires:
A. Vaginal delivery
B. Cesarean delivery
C. No intervention
D. Forceps
Answer: B
Rationale: Vaginal delivery is unsafe in transverse lie.
109. Ethics
Non-maleficence means:
A. Promote good
B. Do no harm
C. Respect autonomy
D. Justice
Answer: B
Rationale: Avoid causing harm to patients.
110. Postpartum
Postpartum depression differs from baby blues by:
A. Short duration
B. Severe symptoms
C. No symptoms
D. Immediate recovery
Answer: B
Rationale: It is more severe and long-lasting.
111. Newborn
Normal newborn heart rate:
A. 60–80 bpm
B. 100–160 bpm
C. 180–220 bpm
D. 40–60 bpm
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal neonatal HR is higher than adults.
112. Screening
Amniocentesis is used to detect:
A. Blood pressure
B. Genetic abnormalities
C. Labor progress
D. Infection only
Answer: B
Rationale: It analyzes fetal cells for genetic conditions.
113. Labor
Braxton Hicks contractions are:
A. Regular and painful
B. Irregular and painless
C. Progressive
D. Strong
Answer: B
Rationale: They are false labor contractions.
114. Complications
Gestational diabetes increases risk of:
A. Low birth weight
B. Macrosomia
C. Prematurity only
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: High glucose leads to larger babies.
115. Pharmacology
Betamethasone is given to:
A. Induce labor
B. Enhance fetal lung maturity
C. Reduce pain
D. Treat infection
Answer: B
Rationale: It accelerates surfactant production.
116. Newborn
Cephalhematoma differs from caput by:
A. Crossing sutures
B. Not crossing sutures
C. Being painless
D. No swelling
Answer: B
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is confined within sutures.
117. Postpartum
Normal postpartum pulse is:
A. Elevated
B. Slightly decreased
C. Irregular
D. Very high
Answer: B
Rationale: Pulse may be slightly slower after birth.
118. Infection
Which infection is prevented by vaccination during pregnancy?
A. Rubella
B. Tetanus
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis C
Answer: B
Rationale: Tdap protects mother and newborn.
119. Labor
Amniotic fluid that is green suggests:
A. Infection
B. Meconium
C. Blood
D. Normal
Answer: B
Rationale: Green fluid indicates fetal stool passage.
120. Professional Practice
Documentation is essential for:
A. Billing only
B. Legal and clinical record
C. Speed
D. Communication only
Answer: B
Rationale: Accurate records support care and legal protection.
Frequently Asked Questions
How accurate is this Certified Midwives practice test compared to the real exam?
Yes, this practice test is designed to reflect real exam patterns, structure, and difficulty level to help you prepare effectively.
What is the best way to use this Certified Midwives test for preparation?
Take the test in a timed setting, review your answers carefully, and focus on improving weak areas after each attempt.
Is it helpful to repeat this Certified Midwives practice test?
Yes, repeating the test helps reinforce concepts, improve accuracy, and build confidence for the actual exam.
Who should use this Certified Midwives practice test?
This practice test is suitable for both beginners and retakers who want to improve their understanding and performance.