NCLEX Neurological Disorders Exam Practice Questions and Answers

180 Questions and Answers

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Mastering the complexities of the nervous system is essential for excelling on the NCLEX-RN or NCLEX-PN exams. This carefully designed set of NCLEX Neurological Disorders Exam Practice Questions and Answers helps you strengthen your understanding of neurological assessments, critical nursing interventions, and pathophysiology.

This practice exam covers key topics including:

  • Neurological disorders such as stroke (CVA), transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, Alzheimer’s disease, and meningitis

  • Early signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and emergency management

  • Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assessment and interpretation

  • Cranial nerve functions and related nursing considerations

  • Seizure precautions and postictal care

  • Neurodiagnostic procedures: EEG, lumbar puncture, CT, and MRI

  • Nursing priorities in traumatic brain injuries and spinal cord injuries

  • Pharmacologic management including anticonvulsants, corticosteroids, and dopamine agonists

  • Nursing care plans for patients with cognitive and sensory deficits

Each question is paired with a detailed explanation to reinforce clinical reasoning, help clarify complex topics, and improve exam readiness.

Whether you’re focusing on neurologic nursing or reviewing for the final stretch of NCLEX prep, this exam provides focused practice to build confidence and accuracy when answering challenging questions.

Sample Questions and Answers

  • A patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is most likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?
  • A. Bradykinesia
  • B. Muscle spasticity
  • C. Hyperreflexia
  • D. Resting tremor

Answer: B. Muscle spasticity

  • Which neurotransmitter is primarily deficient in Parkinson’s disease?
  • A. Acetylcholine
  • B. Dopamine
  • C. Serotonin
  • D. Norepinephrine

Answer: B. Dopamine

  • The initial sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is often:
  • A. Bradycardia
  • B. Hypertension
  • C. Altered level of consciousness
  • D. Pupillary dilation

Answer: C. Altered level of consciousness

  • Which of the following is a common early symptom of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
  • A. Visual disturbances
  • B. Muscle weakness
  • C. Cognitive decline
  • D. Sensory loss

Answer: B. Muscle weakness

  • In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the primary pathological process involves:
  • A. Demyelination of peripheral nerves
  • B. Degeneration of motor neurons
  • C. Plaque formation in the CNS
  • D. Neurofibrillary tangles

Answer: A. Demyelination of peripheral nerves

  • Which medication is commonly prescribed to manage spasticity in multiple sclerosis patients?
  • A. Levodopa
  • B. Baclofen
  • C. Donepezil
  • D. Phenytoin

Answer: B. Baclofen

  • A positive Brudzinski’s sign is indicative of:
  • A. Meningeal irritation
  • B. Cerebellar dysfunction
  • C. Vestibular disorder
  • D. Spinal cord injury

Answer: A. Meningeal irritation

  • The primary goal in the acute management of a patient with a stroke is to:
  • A. Reduce intracranial pressure
  • B. Maintain airway patency
  • C. Prevent aspiration
  • D. Restore cerebral blood flow

Answer: D. Restore cerebral blood flow

  • Which of the following is a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis?
  • A. Progressive muscle weakness with activity
  • B. Involuntary muscle contractions
  • C. Loss of muscle coordination
  • D. Sensory deficits

Answer: A. Progressive muscle weakness with activity

  • The most common type of stroke is:
  • A. Ischemic
  • B. Hemorrhagic
  • C. Transient ischemic attack
  • D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer: A. Ischemic

  • Which cranial nerve is assessed by evaluating the gag reflex?
  • A. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
  • B. Vagus (X)
  • C. Hypoglossal (XII)
  • D. Trigeminal (V)

Answer: A. Glossopharyngeal (IX)

  • A patient presents with a sudden, severe headache described as “the worst headache of my life.” This is most indicative of:
  • A. Migraine
  • B. Tension headache
  • C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • D. Cluster headache

Answer: C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

  • Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke?
  • A. Age
  • B. Family history
  • C. Hypertension
  • D. Gender

Answer: C. Hypertension

  • The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses which of the following functions?
  • A. Motor response, verbal response, and eye opening
  • B. Pupillary response, motor strength, and reflexes
  • C. Sensory perception, coordination, and balance
  • D. Memory, orientation, and judgment

Answer: A. Motor response, verbal response, and eye opening

  • Which of the following is a common side effect of phenytoin (Dilantin) therapy?
  • A. Weight gain
  • B. Gingival hyperplasia
  • C. Insomnia
  • D. Hypotension

Answer: B. Gingival hyperplasia

  • A patient with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1-T4 is at risk for which complication?
  • A. Autonomic dysreflexia
  • B. Respiratory failure
  • C. Quadriplegia
  • D. Loss of bowel and bladder function

Answer: A. Autonomic dysreflexia

  • Which diagnostic test is most definitive for diagnosing multiple sclerosis?
  • A. MRI of the brain and spinal cord
  • B. CT scan of the head
  • C. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  • D. Lumbar puncture

Answer: A. MRI of the brain and spinal cord

 

  • Which sign is most characteristic of increased intracranial pressure in a pediatric patient?
  • A. Bulging fontanel
  • B. Nuchal rigidity
  • C. High-pitched cry
  • D. Seizures

Answer: A. Bulging fontanel

  • A nurse is caring for a patient with a basilar skull fracture. Which finding is most concerning?
  • A. Clear fluid draining from the nose
  • B. Bruising around the eyes (raccoon eyes)
  • C. Bruising behind the ears (Battle’s sign)
  • D. Nausea and vomiting

Answer: A. Clear fluid draining from the nose

  • The main goal of administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) to a stroke patient is to:
  • A. Dissolve the clot blocking blood flow to the brain
  • B. Decrease blood pressure
  • C. Prevent seizures
  • D. Reduce intracranial pressure

Answer: A. Dissolve the clot blocking blood flow to the brain

  • Which cranial nerve is tested when asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance?
  • A. Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
  • B. Cranial nerve X (Vagus)
  • C. Cranial nerve XI (Accessory)
  • D. Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal)

Answer: C. Cranial nerve XI (Accessory)

  • In patients with myasthenia gravis, the Tensilon test is used to:
  • A. Confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
  • B. Identify the location of the tumor
  • C. Assess respiratory function
  • D. Monitor the progression of the disease

Answer: A. Confirm the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

  • Which condition is characterized by sudden, severe, unilateral facial weakness?
  • A. Trigeminal neuralgia
  • B. Bell’s palsy
  • C. Stroke
  • D. Multiple sclerosis

Answer: B. Bell’s palsy

  • Which clinical manifestation is an early sign of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
  • A. Sudden loss of consciousness
  • B. Progressive ascending paralysis
  • C. Loss of deep tendon reflexes
  • D. Difficulty breathing

Answer: B. Progressive ascending paralysis

  • A nurse is providing care to a patient with a seizure disorder. Which action is a priority during a seizure?
  • A. Insert a bite block into the patient’s mouth
  • B. Protect the patient’s head from injury
  • C. Restrain the patient’s movements
  • D. Administer anticonvulsants immediately

Answer: B. Protect the patient’s head from injury

  • What is the primary intervention for a patient diagnosed with bacterial meningitis?
  • A. Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately
  • B. Monitor for signs of hemorrhage
  • C. Perform a lumbar puncture
  • D. Isolate the patient to prevent the spread

Answer: A. Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately

  • Which finding is most consistent with Cushing’s triad in a patient with increased intracranial pressure?
  • A. Tachycardia, hypotension, and irregular respirations
  • B. Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
  • C. Hypotension, tachycardia, and Kussmaul breathing
  • D. Bradycardia, hypertension, and Cheyne-Stokes respirations

Answer: B. Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations

  • Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s neurologic status?
  • A. Pupil size and reactivity
  • B. Glasgow Coma Scale score
  • C. Motor strength and coordination
  • D. Reflex responses

Answer: B. Glasgow Coma Scale score

  • Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with advanced Alzheimer’s disease?
  • A. Risk for infection
  • B. Impaired verbal communication
  • C. Risk for injury
  • D. Impaired social interaction

Answer: C. Risk for injury

  • A patient with a history of epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
  • A. “I will take my medication at the same time every day.”
  • B. “I can stop taking the medication once my seizures stop.”
  • C. “I should have regular dental check-ups.”
  • D. “I will avoid drinking alcohol while on this medication.”

Answer: B. “I can stop taking the medication once my seizures stop.”

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