Certified Development Lifecycle and Deployment Architect Exam

Sample Questions and Answers

What is the purpose of canary deployments in release management?

Gradually roll out changes to a small subset of users before full deployment
B. Deploy all changes at once
C. Rollback to previous version immediately
D. Disable features temporarily

Answer: A. Gradually roll out changes to a small subset of users before full deployment
Explanation: Minimizes risk by detecting issues early.

How do Deployment Rollback Scripts improve deployment resilience?

Automate reversal of changes in case of deployment failure or errors
B. Automate initial deployment only
C. Backup data manually
D. Only used for data migrations

Answer: A. Automate reversal of changes in case of deployment failure or errors
Explanation: Reduces downtime and manual fixes.

What is a key consideration when automating deployments to Production?

Ensure all tests pass and approvals are in place before deployment
B. Deploy as fast as possible without testing
C. Ignore approval workflows
D. Deploy without validation

Answer: A. Ensure all tests pass and approvals are in place before deployment
Explanation: Critical for stability and compliance.

What is the benefit of using Blue-Green Deployment in Salesforce?

Maintain two identical environments to switch traffic between, reducing downtime
B. Deploy only in sandbox
C. Delete previous versions immediately
D. Only run manual tests

Answer: A. Maintain two identical environments to switch traffic between, reducing downtime
Explanation: Enables smooth production updates.

What is the primary function of Metadata API in Salesforce?

Programmatically retrieve, deploy, create, update, or delete metadata components
B. Migrate user data
C. Run Apex code
D. Manage user permissions

Answer: A. Programmatically retrieve, deploy, create, update, or delete metadata components
Explanation: Core API for automation and deployments.

What best practice helps maintain environment parity?

Use automated scripts to configure environments identically
B. Manually configure each environment
C. Ignore sandbox configuration
D. Change production frequently without testing

Answer: A. Use automated scripts to configure environments identically
Explanation: Prevents environment-specific bugs.

What is the role of Quality Gates in a deployment pipeline?

Automated checks such as code analysis, test results, and security scans before promotion
B. Manual approvals only
C. Backup data checkpoints
D. User access control

Answer: A. Automated checks such as code analysis, test results, and security scans before promotion
Explanation: Ensures quality and compliance before deployment.

What is a Sandbox Seeding strategy?

Populating sandbox environments with production-like data for realistic testing
B. Deleting sandbox data
C. Backup production data only
D. Use empty sandboxes for all tests

Answer: A. Populating sandbox environments with production-like data for realistic testing
Explanation: Improves test accuracy.

Which deployment strategy is best suited for zero downtime in Salesforce production updates?

Blue-Green Deployment
B. Change Sets only
C. Manual deployment after hours
D. Full sandbox refresh

Answer: A. Blue-Green Deployment
Explanation: Switches traffic between two production environments.

What is the purpose of Deployment Logs?

Track detailed deployment steps, errors, and results for auditing and troubleshooting
B. Backup metadata only
C. Manage user permissions
D. Run automated tests

Answer: A. Track detailed deployment steps, errors, and results for auditing and troubleshooting
Explanation: Critical for debugging and audit trails.

What does Salesforce DX (Developer Experience) emphasize in development?

Source-driven development with modern tools and automation
B. Manual deployments only
C. Avoid use of version control
D. Use only Change Sets

Answer: A. Source-driven development with modern tools and automation
Explanation: Facilitates better collaboration and continuous delivery.

What is the benefit of using Version Control Systems (like Git) in Salesforce development?

Track changes, manage branches, and enable collaboration with rollback capabilities
B. Backup production data
C. Deploy without testing
D. Manage user permissions

Answer: A. Track changes, manage branches, and enable collaboration with rollback capabilities
Explanation: Essential for team-based development and history tracking.

What is the function of Pre-Deployment Validation in release management?

Run all tests and checks without applying changes to production to catch errors early
B. Deploy immediately without validation
C. Only review documentation
D. Validate user data

Answer: A. Run all tests and checks without applying changes to production to catch errors early
Explanation: Prevents failed deployments.

How can Automated Smoke Tests improve deployment confidence?

Quickly verify critical functionality after deployment to detect major issues
B. Replace full regression testing
C. Manual tests only
D. Ignore test failures

Answer: A. Quickly verify critical functionality after deployment to detect major issues
Explanation: Early detection of major defects post-deployment.

What is the importance of Secure Credential Management in deployment automation?

Prevent unauthorized access to environments and sensitive data during deployment
B. Use hardcoded passwords only
C. Share credentials openly
D. Avoid encryption

Answer: A. Prevent unauthorized access to environments and sensitive data during deployment
Explanation: Security best practice in automation.

What is a Deployment Freeze Window?

Predefined period during which no deployments are allowed, usually for business-critical times
B. Time to deploy as often as possible
C. Backup window only
D. Period for manual testing

Answer: A. Predefined period during which no deployments are allowed, usually for business-critical times
Explanation: Minimizes risk during critical business operations.

What is the purpose of Deployment Metrics?

Measure deployment success rates, failure causes, and cycle times to improve processes
B. Backup metadata only
C. Manage user permissions
D. Run Apex code

Answer: A. Measure deployment success rates, failure causes, and cycle times to improve processes
Explanation: Enables continuous improvement.

How do Post-Deployment Automation Scripts aid release management?

Automatically configure settings, notify teams, and run cleanup tasks after deployment
B. Only prepare deployment packages
C. Backup data before deployment
D. Validate credentials

Answer: A. Automatically configure settings, notify teams, and run cleanup tasks after deployment
Explanation: Enhances deployment efficiency and accuracy.

What is the benefit of using Deployment Sandboxes?

Isolate testing and deployment validations without affecting production
B. Directly deploy to production
C. Store user data only
D. Run manual tests only

Answer: A. Isolate testing and deployment validations without affecting production
Explanation: Critical for risk-free validation.

What does Impact Analysis involve before deployment?

Assessing how proposed changes affect existing functionality and integrations
B. Backup user data only
C. Running tests after deployment
D. Managing user permissions

Answer: A. Assessing how proposed changes affect existing functionality and integrations
Explanation: Prevents unintended consequences.

Which approach supports rollbacks in complex deployments?

Using versioned packages and automated rollback scripts
B. Manual reverts only
C. Deploying without backups
D. Ignoring failures

Answer: A. Using versioned packages and automated rollback scripts
Explanation: Facilitates quick recovery.

How do Environment Provisioning Automation Tools benefit Salesforce teams?

Quickly create, configure, and refresh environments on demand with consistency
B. Manual environment setup only
C. Deploy code only
D. Manage user permissions

Answer: A. Quickly create, configure, and refresh environments on demand with consistency
Explanation: Speeds development and testing cycles.

What is the use of Automated Dependency Checks in deployments?

Identify missing or incompatible components before deployment to avoid failures
B. Only deploy metadata without checks
C. Manual verification only
D. Backup data

Answer: A. Identify missing or incompatible components before deployment to avoid failures
Explanation: Ensures deployment integrity.

How does Performance Monitoring post-deployment contribute to deployment success?

Detects degradation or bottlenecks early, enabling proactive fixes
B. Only measure user logins
C. Backup data only
D. Ignore system metrics

Answer: A. Detects degradation or bottlenecks early, enabling proactive fixes
Explanation: Maintains system reliability.

What is the role of Sandbox Refresh Scheduling?

Regularly update sandboxes with recent production metadata and data to keep them current
B. Never refresh sandboxes
C. Only refresh production
D. Delete sandbox data

Answer: A. Regularly update sandboxes with recent production metadata and data to keep them current
Explanation: Ensures testing is accurate and relevant.

What is a common cause of Salesforce deployment bottlenecks?

Lack of automated testing and approval processes
B. Too many users
C. Insufficient storage only
D. Frequent code reviews

Answer: A. Lack of automated testing and approval processes
Explanation: Manual steps slow down deployments.

How do Rollback Plans improve deployment risk management?

Define clear steps and tools to revert changes in case of deployment issues
B. Ignore failed deployments
C. Deploy without backups
D. Manual fixes only

Answer: A. Define clear steps and tools to revert changes in case of deployment issues
Explanation: Reduces downtime and data loss risk.

What is the benefit of Using Feature Branches and Pull Requests in Salesforce development?

Enables code review, collaboration, and safer integration before deployment
B. Direct commit to production
C. Avoid version control
D. Manual deployment only

Answer: A. Enables code review, collaboration, and safer integration before deployment
Explanation: Improves code quality and team collaboration.